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Free CAAS SAR-66 Module 7 Maintenance Practices Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the CAAS SAR-66 Module 7 Maintenance Practices practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1Several conductor strands in a portable tool's power cord are broken. Why can continued use create a local fire hazard?

    1. A.The remaining strands carry the current through less conducting metal.Correct answer: A
    2. B.The reduced cross-section necessarily increases the safe current rating.
    3. C.The broken strands act as a fuse that guarantees immediate disconnection.
    4. D.The smaller conducting area removes resistance heating from the cord.

    Explanation: The handbook states, "When several wires inside a power cord are broken, the current passing through the remaining wires increases." Broken strands concentrate current in the remaining conducting area and can cause excessive heat. Reduced area does not increase ampacity, guarantee fuse-like disconnection, or eliminate resistance heating.

    Reference: FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook—General — Chapter 1, Electrical Safety—Fire Safety, p. 1-2

  2. 2A previously drilled hole needs a smooth finish and an accurate final diameter. Which hand tool is designed for this operation?

    1. A.A centre punch
    2. B.A bottoming tap
    3. C.A straight reamerCorrect answer: C
    4. D.A countersink cutter

    Explanation: The handbook states, "Reamers are used to smooth and enlarge holes to exact size." Reaming finishes an existing hole. A tap cuts threads, a centre punch marks a drilling location, and a countersink makes a conical recess.

    Reference: FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook—General — Chapter 11, Reamers, p. 11-13

  3. 3A printed drawing has been resized during copying. What should determine the manufactured part's dimensions?

    1. A.Measurements scaled from the copied outline
    2. B.The dimensions explicitly stated on the drawingCorrect answer: B
    3. C.The nominal size of the paper used for the copy
    4. D.The magnification selected when the copy was made

    Explanation: The handbook states, "For accurate information, refer to the dimensions shown on the drawing." Copying or zooming can alter the physical image size. Stated dimensions control; paper size, magnification and scaling the copied outline do not establish the required part size.

    Reference: FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook—General — Chapter 4, Scale, p. 4-9

  4. 4A de-energised and appropriately isolated wiring run must be tested for insulation leakage under electrical stress. Which instrument is designed for this measurement?

    1. A.A low-resistance bonding meter
    2. B.A frequency counter
    3. C.A clamp-on current meter
    4. D.An insulation-resistance megohmmeterCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The handbook states, "The chief advantage of the megger over an ohmmeter is its capacity to measure resistance with a high potential, or “breakdown” voltage." This tests insulation under an applied test voltage, using the isolation and test conditions specified for the installation. A bonding meter addresses low resistance, a current clamp measures current, and a frequency counter measures repetition rate.

    Reference: FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook—General — Chapter 12, Megger (Megohmmeter), p. 12-72

  5. 5A newly fabricated aircraft fluid tube has a wrinkled bend. What is the appropriate assessment before installation?

    1. A.Accept it if the fitting nuts can still be tightened.
    2. B.Accept it after compensating with a larger clamp.
    3. C.Do not install it in that condition.Correct answer: C
    4. D.Do not inspect it until the first pressure cycle.

    Explanation: The handbook states, "Tubing with flattened, wrinkled, or irregular bends should not be installed." A bend defect must be corrected or the tube remade as applicable before installation. Tightening a fitting, enlarging a clamp or waiting for service does not remove the bend defect.

    Reference: FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook—General — Chapter 9, Tube Bending, p. 9-3

  6. 6Why must sprockets in an aircraft chain transmission be correctly aligned?

    1. A.To prevent the chain riding flanges and chafing nearby guardsCorrect answer: A
    2. B.To make chain lubrication unnecessary after installation
    3. C.To remove the chain's need for correctly fitted attachment links
    4. D.To increase chain tension beyond the manufacturer's setting

    Explanation: CAAIP explains, "All pulleys and sprockets must be aligned to provide a satisfactory 'run' for the cables and chains so preventing riding on the flanges of the pulleys and sprockets and chafing against the guards and covers." Alignment establishes the correct chain path. It does not replace lubrication, attachment security or the prescribed tension setting.

    Reference: CAA Civil Aircraft Airworthiness Information and Procedures — Book 2, Leaflet 20-80, §9.1

  7. 7Using the mid-thickness neutral-axis approximation, what bend allowance is required for a 90° bend with an inside radius of 4.0 mm in 1.0-mm sheet? Round to two decimal places.

    1. A.6.28 mm
    2. B.7.85 mm
    3. C.14.14 mm
    4. D.7.07 mmCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The handbook states, "To the radius of bend (R) add 1⁄2 the thickness of the metal (1⁄2T). This gives R + 1⁄2T, or the radius of the circle of the neutral axis." Under the stated approximation, neutral radius = 4.0 + 0.5(1.0) = 4.5 mm. A 90° arc is one quarter of a circle, so allowance = 2π(4.5)/4 = 7.0686 mm, rounded to 7.07 mm. Ignoring thickness gives 6.28 mm; adding full thickness gives 7.85 mm; using a semicircle gives 14.14 mm.

    Reference: FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook—Airframe — Chapter 4, Formula 1: Bend Allowance for a 90° Bend, p. 4-63

  8. 8Two loads of 600 kg at an arm of 2.0 m and 400 kg at an arm of 3.0 m are measured from the same datum. What is their combined centre-of-gravity arm?

    1. A.2.4 mCorrect answer: A
    2. B.2.5 m
    3. C.2.6 m
    4. D.5.0 m

    Explanation: The handbook gives "CG = Total Moment ÷ Total Weight". Total moment = 600 × 2.0 + 400 × 3.0 = 2400 kg·m; total mass = 1000 kg; CG arm = 2400/1000 = 2.4 m. The 2.5-m answer averages arms without weighting; 2.6 m reverses the load weighting; 5.0 m adds arms.

    Reference: FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook—General — Chapter 6, General Concepts—CG Calculation, p. 6-6

  9. 9Inspection reveals characteristic worm-like corrosion tracks beneath an aircraft paint film. Which form of corrosion does this appearance suggest?

    1. A.Filiform corrosionCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Fretting corrosion
    3. C.Exfoliation corrosion
    4. D.Stress-corrosion cracking

    Explanation: The handbook describes filiform corrosion: "It is recognized by its characteristic wormlike trace of corrosion products beneath the paint film." Fretting occurs at moving contact surfaces, exfoliation lifts grains, and stress-corrosion cracking produces cracks under combined stress and environment.

    Reference: FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook—General — Chapter 8, Filiform Corrosion, p. 8-5

  10. 10Under SAR-145, a life-limited part reaches its mandatory replacement limit but has no visible damage. What is required?

    1. A.Continue using it until a crack becomes visible
    2. B.Permanently remove it from service on or before the limitCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Reset its accumulated life after cleaning and repainting
    4. D.Replace the mandatory limit with a local visual-inspection interval

    Explanation: The source states, "This part must be permanently removed from service on or before this limit is reached." The mandatory replacement limit controls removal even if a visual check reveals no damage. Appearance, cleaning or a locally chosen inspection interval cannot reset that limit.

    Reference: CAAS SAR-145 Approved Maintenance Organisations — Section 1, Definitions—Life-limited part

Exam Review

About CAAS SAR-66 Module 7 Maintenance Practices

CAAS SAR-66 Module 7 Maintenance Practices · SG

Key exam facts

Provider
Civil Aviation Authority of Singapore (CAAS) is the examination authority; Aspeq Assessment Specialists delivers the CAAS examinations.
Format
Written multiple-choice knowledge examination. Each official MCQ has three answer choices and one correct answer. M50 is a separate combined essay paper and is excluded. The examination is conducted in person at the CAAS Examinations Centre in Changi Airport Terminal 2.
Exam questions
Total questions: 60–80.
Time limit
Category-dependent paper configurations: A — 72 MCQs in 90 minutes; B1 — 80 MCQs in 100 minutes; B2 — 60 MCQs in 75 minutes. The total-question range shown is the envelope of these three category-specific counts, not a claim that every intermediate count occurs. These are examination answer times, separate from arrival/administration.
Passing score
75% pass mark for each SAR-66 module. No penalty marking is applied to multiple-choice papers.
Exam fee
S$87.20 per aircraft-maintenance-licence examination paper under Air Navigation Order Twelfth Schedule paragraph 11(1)(a). This is the per-paper charge, separate from licence-grant/renewal and rating fees; cancellation and rescheduling charges are separate. The same per-paper provision applies when sitting a paper again.

Topics covered

  • Safety Precautions – Aircraft and Workshop

  • Workshop Practices

  • Tools

  • Avionic General Test Equipment

  • Engineering Drawings, Diagrams and Standards

  • Fits and Clearances

  • Electrical Wiring Interconnection System (EWIS)

  • Riveting

  • Pipes and Hoses

  • Springs

  • Bearings

  • Transmissions

  • Control Cables

  • Material Handling

    • Sheet Metal Work
    • Composite and non-metallic
  • Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding

    • Soldering methods; inspection of soldered joints
    • Welding and brazing methods; inspection of welded and brazed joints; bonding methods and inspection of bonded joints
  • Aircraft Weight and Balance

    • Centre of Gravity / Balance limits calculation: use of relevant documents
    • Preparation of aircraft for weighing; aircraft weighing
  • Aircraft Handling and Storage

  • Disassembly, Inspection, Repair and Assembly Techniques

    • Types of defects and visual inspection techniques; corrosion removal, assessment and reprotection
    • General repair methods, Structural Repair Manual; ageing, fatigue and corrosion control programmes
    • Non-destructive inspection techniques including penetrant, radiographic, eddy current, ultrasonic and boroscope methods
    • Disassembly and re-assembly techniques
    • Troubleshooting techniques
  • Abnormal Events

    • Inspections following lightning strikes and HIRF penetration
    • Inspections following abnormal events such as heavy landings and flight through turbulence
  • Maintenance Procedures

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Written multiple-choice knowledge examination. Each official MCQ has three answer choices and one correct answer. M50 is a separate combined essay paper and is excluded. The examination is conducted in person at the CAAS Examinations Centre in Changi Airport Terminal 2.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 60–80.

How long is the exam?

Category-dependent paper configurations: A — 72 MCQs in 90 minutes; B1 — 80 MCQs in 100 minutes; B2 — 60 MCQs in 75 minutes. The total-question range shown is the envelope of these three category-specific counts, not a claim that every intermediate count occurs. These are examination answer times, separate from arrival/administration.

What is the passing score?

75% pass mark for each SAR-66 module. No penalty marking is applied to multiple-choice papers.

How much does the exam cost?

S$87.20 per aircraft-maintenance-licence examination paper under Air Navigation Order Twelfth Schedule paragraph 11(1)(a). This is the per-paper charge, separate from licence-grant/renewal and rating fees; cancellation and rescheduling charges are separate. The same per-paper provision applies when sitting a paper again.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.