Free Flight Instructor Glider Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Flight Instructor Glider practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1A private glider pilot will carry a friend on a daytime flight. No exception to the general recent-experience rule applies. Within what maximum preceding period must the pilot have made the required three takeoffs and three landings?

   1. A. 30 days
   2. B. 60 days
   3. C. 90 days
   4. D. 180 days

   Answer: C

   Explanation: Section 61.57(a)(1) requires "at least three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days". The pilot must also have been sole manipulator in the appropriate aircraft category. The maximum lookback period is 90 days.

   Reference: 14 CFR 61.57 — Recent flight experience: Pilot in command — 61.57(a)(1)(i)-(ii)

2. 2While explaining angle of attack during a glider lesson, an instructor distinguishes it from pitch attitude and flightpath angle. Between which two references is angle of attack measured?

   1. A. The chord line and the horizon
   2. B. The chord line and the relative wind
   3. C. The flightpath and the horizon
   4. D. The longitudinal axis and the horizon

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The handbook defines angle of attack as "the acute angle between the chord line of the wing and the relative wind". A horizon-based attitude or flightpath angle is a different measurement.

   Reference: Glider Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-13B), Chapter 3: Aerodynamics of Flight — p. 3-3, Lift Formula

3. 3Two gliders are already circling left in a thermal when another glider joins. Which turn direction should the joining pilot use to integrate with that traffic?

   1. A. A right turn matching the nearest glider's bank angle
   2. B. A right turn while remaining outside the existing circle
   3. C. A left turn matching the established circling direction
   4. D. Alternating left and right turns through the thermal core

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The handbook states: "The first glider in a thermal establishes the direction of turn, and all other gliders that join the thermal should turn in the same direction." The joining pilot should therefore turn left and enter without interfering with the established traffic.

   Reference: Glider Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-13B), Chapter 10: Soaring Techniques — p. 10-10, Collision Avoidance

4. 4A glider's published polar gives sink rates of 2.2 knots at 35 knots airspeed, 1.9 at 40, 2.1 at 50, and 2.6 at 60. In still air, which listed airspeed gives the greatest time aloft from a fixed height?

   1. A. 35 knots
   2. B. 50 knots
   3. C. 40 knots
   4. D. 60 knots

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The handbook defines minimum sink airspeed as "The speed that results in the lowest altitude loss over time". Of the supplied polar points, 1.9 knots is the lowest sink rate, at 40 knots airspeed. Best distance and lowest airspeed are different selection criteria.

   Reference: Glider Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-13B), Chapter 5: Glider Performance — p. 5-8, Weight, paragraph defining minimum sink; p. 5-10, Glider Polars

5. 5A cross-country glider pilot determines position by matching a river bend, road junction, and town to the sectional chart. Which navigation method is the pilot using?

   1. A. Dead reckoning
   2. B. Radio navigation
   3. C. Inertial navigation
   4. D. Pilotage

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The handbook describes "pilotage—navigating by reference to visible" landmarks. Matching visible ground features to the chart is pilotage, rather than estimating position from speed and time or deriving it from electronic navigation signals.

   Reference: Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Chapter 16: Navigation — p. 16-1, Introduction

6. 6Friends have arranged a celebration at the destination and urge a glider pilot to launch despite reservations about the flight. In the PAVE checklist, where should the pilot classify this influence?

   1. A. Pilot
   2. B. Aircraft
   3. C. External pressure
   4. D. Environment

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The handbook states: "Any external pressure to take a particular flight can create an additional hazard." It identifies PAVE as "Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressure". The friends' expectations are external pressure rather than a physical condition of the pilot, aircraft, or environment.

   Reference: Glider Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-13B), Chapter 13: Human Factors — p. 13-12, Risk Management

7. 7During aerotow, the towplane deliberately rocks its wings as the agreed emergency signal. What action does that signal request from the glider pilot?

   1. A. Check the glider's configuration for a problem such as open spoilers.
   2. B. Move below the towplane's wake into the normal low-tow position.
   3. C. Move left of the towplane and rock the glider's wings to signal.
   4. D. Pull the release handle to disconnect the tow rope immediately.

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The handbook states: "The tow pilot rocks the wings of the towplane to request an immediate release by the glider pilot." A rudder waggle, by contrast, alerts the pilot to check for a glider problem. The two signals must not be confused.

   Reference: Glider Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-13B), Chapter 8: Abnormal & Emergency Procedures — p. 8-2, Mechanical Failures

8. 8A properly equipped glider approaches Class B airspace. The controller has acknowledged the glider's call sign but has not issued a clearance. What must the pilot obtain before entering Class B?

   1. A. An ATC clearance to operate in that Class B area
   2. B. An assigned transponder code for the flight
   3. C. An acknowledgment of the current ATIS identifier
   4. D. A traffic advisory identifying the nearest aircraft

   Answer: A

   Explanation: Section 91.131(a)(1) states: "The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that area." Acknowledgment, a code, weather information, or traffic advice is not that entry clearance.

   Reference: 14 CFR 91.131 — 91.131(a)(1)

9. 9A glider pilot makes an initial airborne call to a tower. The call must identify the facility, the aircraft, and a short request. Which order follows the AIM initial-contact format?

   1. A. Aircraft identification, short request, facility name
   2. B. Facility name, full aircraft identification, short request
   3. C. Short request, facility name, full aircraft identification
   4. D. Facility name, short request, full aircraft identification

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The AIM initial-contact sequence begins with "Name of the facility being called;" followed by "Your full aircraft identification" and then the message or short request. This identifies the intended recipient before identifying the caller and request.

   Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Chapter 4, Section 2: Radio Communications Phraseology and Techniques — 4-2-3, Contact Procedures, Initial Contact

10. 10After glider assembly, the pilot performs a positive control check while a helper restrains the relevant control surface. The cockpit control moves freely through its normal travel despite the surface being held. What does this finding indicate?

    1. A. The control connection has normal operating clearance.
    2. B. The control trim has removed the expected aerodynamic load.
    3. C. The control connections are insecure and the glider is unairworthy.
    4. D. The control surface has reached its normal mechanical stop.

    Answer: C

    Explanation: The handbook states: "A stick or pedal that moves freely with the corresponding control surfaces restricted indicates the connections are not secure, and the glider is not airworthy." Restraining the surface should transmit resistance to the cockpit control. Free movement despite that restraint reveals an insecure load path, rather than normal clearance, trim relief, or a correctly functioning mechanical stop.

    Reference: Glider Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-13B), Chapter 6: Preflight & Ground Operations — p. 6-8, Prelaunch Checklist, positive control check