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Free Safety Trained Supervisor® (STS®) exam Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Safety Trained Supervisor® (STS®) exam practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1An orientation group includes experienced workers who cannot read the written English handout. Which change best meets OSHA's guidance for understandable training?

    1. A.Use a translated technical handout built around regulatory terminology.
    2. B.Use a language and literacy level the workers can understand.Correct answer: B
    3. C.Use a standardized English lecture followed by a written knowledge test.
    4. D.Use a bilingual reference manual as the complete training presentation.

    Explanation: OSHA states, "Ensure that training is provided in the language(s) and at a literacy level that all workers can understand." Both understandable language and literacy are expressly required. Translation alone does not establish an understandable literacy level. An English lecture does not address the comprehension barrier. A reference manual does not establish understandable instruction.

    Reference: OSHA Recommended Practices: Education and Training — Action item 1

  2. 2A previously inspected work area now has worn tools and declining housekeeping. What inspection approach best fits OSHA's guidance?

    1. A.Inspect again after the next recordable injury.
    2. B.Use regular inspections to identify hazards introduced over time.Correct answer: B
    3. C.Use the original inspection until the production process is replaced.
    4. D.Wait for the insurer's annual visit to identify new conditions.

    Explanation: OSHA states, "Hazards can be introduced over time as workstations and processes change, equipment or tools become worn, maintenance is neglected, or housekeeping practices decline." An earlier inspection does not establish that present conditions remain safe.

    Reference: OSHA Recommended Practices: Hazard Identification and Assessment — Action item 2

  3. 3A process can be redesigned to stop using a hazardous solvent altogether. Why is this preferred to issuing respirators for the same exposure?

    1. A.It removes the hazard at its source so the exposure cannot occur.Correct answer: A
    2. B.It reduces the duration of each worker's exposure to the existing source.
    3. C.It places a physical barrier between workers and the existing source.
    4. D.It uses protective equipment to separate workers from the existing source.

    Explanation: The source states, "Elimination removes the hazard at the source." Elimination removes the source. Exposure-duration reduction is an administrative approach rather than source removal. A barrier is engineering separation rather than elimination. Worn protection leaves the source present.

    Reference: NIOSH Hierarchy of Controls — Elimination

  4. 4A designated first-aid responder encounters blood from a worker whose infection status is unknown. Under Universal Precautions, how should the blood be treated?

    1. A.As potentially infectious regardless of known infection statusCorrect answer: A
    2. B.As noninfectious until a laboratory result establishes infection
    3. C.As infectious only if the injured worker reports symptoms
    4. D.As noninfectious if the injured worker has no documented diagnosis

    Explanation: The source states, "all human blood and certain human body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne pathogens." Unknown infection status does not remove the need for precautions.

    Reference: OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard — 1910.1030(b), Universal Precautions

  5. 5A supervisor schedules routine visual inspections of portable fire extinguishers under OSHA's standard. What is the required inspection interval?

    1. A.Daily
    2. B.Weekly
    3. C.MonthlyCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Annually

    Explanation: OSHA states, "Portable extinguishers or hose used in lieu thereof under paragraph (d)(3) of this section shall be visually inspected monthly." Monthly visual inspection is distinct from the annual maintenance check.

    Reference: OSHA portable fire extinguishers — 1910.157(e)(2)

  6. 6Electrical work will expose an employee to live parts above 50 volts. Deenergizing introduces no additional hazard and is feasible. What must the supervisor arrange before the work?

    1. A.Deenergize the parts before work on or near themCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Keep them energized while posting electrical warning signs
    3. C.Keep them energized while assigning a second observer
    4. D.Keep them energized while scheduling a later isolation

    Explanation: OSHA states, "Live parts to which an employee may be exposed shall be deenergized before the employee works on or near them, unless the employer can demonstrate that deenergizing introduces additional or increased hazards or is infeasible due to equipment design or operational limitations." None of the specified exceptions applies. Warning signs, observers, and a future shutdown do not replace deenergizing.

    Reference: OSHA electrical safe work practices — 1910.333(a)(1)

  7. 7A supervisor is planning program-awareness orientation for a temporary agency crew. How should the crew be treated under OSHA's recommended training coverage?

    1. A.Include them in program-awareness training along with other workers.Correct answer: A
    2. B.Use the agency's general safety orientation as their entire program-awareness training.
    3. C.Use their existing trade certification as their entire program-awareness training.
    4. D.Use permanent-employment conversion as the trigger for their program-awareness training.

    Explanation: OSHA states, "Provide training to all managers, supervisors, workers, and contractor, subcontractor, and temporary agency workers on:" Temporary agency workers are expressly included. Agency orientation does not establish awareness of this program. Trade certification does not establish awareness of this program. Conversion is not a prerequisite for training temporary workers.

    Reference: OSHA Recommended Practices: Education and Training — Action item 1

  8. 8A warehouse inspection is being planned by staff unfamiliar with the night shift. Whose participation helps identify the shift's actual hazards?

    1. A.Employees who perform the night-shift workCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Day-shift planners who schedule incoming deliveries
    3. C.Maintenance planners who arrange annual equipment shutdowns
    4. D.Safety trainers who prepare the general orientation materials

    Explanation: The source states, "Have workers participate on the inspection team and talk to them about hazards that they see or report." The actual shift workers directly see and report its hazards. Delivery scheduling does not provide equivalent direct experience of these night-shift tasks. Annual maintenance planning does not provide the requested direct shift experience. General orientation design does not provide direct observation of night-shift work.

    Reference: OSHA Recommended Practices: Hazard Identification and Assessment — Action item 2

  9. 9A process is enclosed so workers cannot contact its moving parts during normal operation. Which control category does the enclosure represent?

    1. A.An administrative control
    2. B.An engineering controlCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Personal protective equipment
    4. D.A medical-surveillance control

    Explanation: The guidance states, "Engineering controls reduce or prevent hazards from coming into contact with workers." A physical equipment modification separates the hazard from the worker.

    Reference: NIOSH Hierarchy of Controls — Engineering controls

  10. 10Mold returns after surface cleanup in an area with an unrepaired plumbing leak. Which condition should the supervisor address to interrupt the source-supported cause of recurring growth?

    1. A.Persistent moisture from the leakCorrect answer: A
    2. B.The intensity of artificial room lighting
    3. C.The amount of available floor space
    4. D.The frequency of general room-temperature readings

    Explanation: The source states, "Mold will grow where there is moisture, such as around leaks in roofs, windows, or pipes, or where there has been a flood." CDC directly identifies moisture and leaks as supporting mold growth. Changing illumination does not correct the cited moisture condition. Floor-space availability does not remove the moisture source. Taking temperature readings does not remove the leak or moisture.

    Reference: CDC Mold — Where mold grows

Exam Review

About Safety Trained Supervisor® (STS®) exam

Safety Trained Supervisor® (STS®) exam · US

Key exam facts

Provider
Board of Certified Safety Professionals (BCSP): examination owner and developer; Pearson: computer-test delivery and proctoring provider.
Format
Closed-book, computer-delivered multiple-choice examination; each item has three or four possible answers and one correct answer.
Exam questions
Total questions: 100.
Time limit
2 hours of examination time; the examination clock continues during self-scheduled breaks.
Passing score
BCSP determines an appropriate passing score by evaluating examination questions. Only correct answers count; incorrect answers carry no penalty. A fixed numerical STS5 cutoff or numeric score scale is not published in the reviewed current STS blueprint, STS page, Complete Guide and Exam Development page.
Exam fee
US dollar fee listing: $185 for one STS examination. Application fees and optional exam bundles are separate; current pricing is subject to change.

Topics covered

  • Safety Program Implementation and Management (15%)

    • Describe essential elements of new employee orientation training.
    • Identify the elements of a Job Safety Analysis (JSA).
    • Apply knowledge of incident investigation and reporting.
    • Observe workers’ fitness for duty and refer when necessary.
  • Hazard Awareness (20%)

    • Apply knowledge of safety inspection procedures and corrections.
    • Apply knowledge of Stop Work Authority (SWA).
    • Identify hazards based on documentation.
    • Apply knowledge of safety audits.
    • Apply knowledge of motor vehicle safety procedures.
  • Hazard Controls (20%)

    • Apply knowledge of hierarchy of controls.
    • Describe how the continuous improvement process for a JSA is conducted.
    • Determine how to mitigate or reduce hazards.
    • Apply knowledge of risk assessment and management.
    • Apply knowledge of machine safeguarding.
  • Basic Industrial Hygiene (12%)

    • Identify hazards related to biological issues.
    • Identify hazards related to chemical issues.
    • Identify hazards related to physical issues.
    • Identify hazards related to airborne issues.
    • Identify hazards related to ergonomics issues.
    • Identify chemical routes of entry into the body.
    • Apply knowledge of hazardous atmospheres.
  • Emergency Preparedness and Management (11%)

    • Apply knowledge of routine emergency equipment inspections.
    • Apply knowledge of equipment emergency shutoff procedures.
    • Identify what should be included in an emergency response plan.
  • Life Critical Activities (22%)

    • Identify electrical hazards.
    • Identify confined spaces hazards.
    • Identify fall hazards.
    • Describe isolation of hazardous energy.
    • Identify ladder safety protocols.
    • Identify fire protection systems.
    • Identify risks associated with hoisting and rigging.

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Closed-book, computer-delivered multiple-choice examination; each item has three or four possible answers and one correct answer.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 100.

How long is the exam?

2 hours of examination time; the examination clock continues during self-scheduled breaks.

What is the passing score?

BCSP determines an appropriate passing score by evaluating examination questions. Only correct answers count; incorrect answers carry no penalty. A fixed numerical STS5 cutoff or numeric score scale is not published in the reviewed current STS blueprint, STS page, Complete Guide and Exam Development page.

How much does the exam cost?

US dollar fee listing: $185 for one STS examination. Application fees and optional exam bundles are separate; current pricing is subject to change.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.