Free PLAB 1 Practice Questions
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Sample Practice Questions
Try these 10 sample questions from the PLAB 1 practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.
1A 32-year-old develops widespread urticaria, wheeze and a blood pressure of 75/40 mmHg immediately after an antibiotic injection. Help has been called and an intravenous cannula is already present. Which medicine should the doctor give first to treat the anaphylaxis?
- A.AdrenalineCorrect answer: A
- B.Chlorphenamine
- C.Hydrocortisone
- D.Salbutamol
Explanation: "Intramuscular adrenaline is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis (even if intravenous access is available)." Airway and circulatory compromise after an allergen require prompt intramuscular adrenaline. Intravenous access does not change the first-line treatment; the other medicines do not replace it.
Reference: Resuscitation Council UK: Emergency treatment of anaphylaxis — Section 5.1, Adrenaline
2A 20 kg child has confirmed hypoglycaemia and a reduced conscious level that prevents safe oral intake. Intravenous access is available. Using the RCUK bolus of 0.2 g/kg glucose, how much 10% glucose solution should be given?
- A.4 mL
- B.20 mL
- C.40 mLCorrect answer: C
- D.400 mL
Explanation: "If oral intake is not possible, give an IV bolus of 0.2 g kg-1 glucose (2 mL kg-1 10% glucose) and re-check blood glucose after 5-10 min and repeat if necessary." Required glucose = 0.2 g/kg × 20 kg = 4 g. A 10% solution contains 10 g/100 mL = 0.1 g/mL, so volume = 4 g ÷ 0.1 g/mL = 40 mL. The 4 mL option mislabels grams as millilitres; 20 mL assumes a 20% solution; 400 mL misreads 10% as 0.01 g/mL. Recheck glucose after 5–10 minutes.
Reference: Resuscitation Council UK: Paediatric life support (basic and advanced) — Management of the critically ill child: Disability
3A patient has recurrent right upper abdominal pain after meals. Gallbladder stones are suspected, without signs of duct obstruction. Which investigation is usually used to confirm gallbladder stones initially?
- A.Abdominal ultrasonographyCorrect answer: A
- B.Magnetic resonance cholangiography
- C.Endoscopic retrograde cholangiography
- D.Abdominal computed tomography
Explanation: "Gallstones can usually be confirmed using an ultrasound scan" Ultrasonography is the usual initial confirmation test for gallbladder stones. The duct-focused studies are considered when bile-duct involvement remains a concern; CT is not the usual first test specified here.
Reference: NHS inform: Gallstones — Diagnosing gallstones: Ultrasound scan
4A patient with type 1 diabetes has missed insulin and develops vomiting, deep breathing and breath that smells of pear drops. Blood glucose is 29 mmol/L and blood ketones are 6 mmol/L. Which acute metabolic complication is most likely?
- A.Lactic acidosis
- B.Starvation ketosis
- C.Diabetic ketoacidosisCorrect answer: C
- D.Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
Explanation: "DKA happens when there’s not enough insulin in your body." Insulin omission, marked ketonaemia, hyperglycaemia and the characteristic breathing and breath smell support DKA rather than isolated lactic acidosis, starvation ketosis or the usually less ketotic hyperosmolar state.
Reference: NHS inform: Diabetic ketoacidosis — What causes diabetic ketoacidosis?
5An untreated patient has repeated clinic blood pressure readings of 156/94 mmHg without symptoms of a hypertensive emergency. They can tolerate out-of-office monitoring. Which investigation is preferred to confirm hypertension?
- A.Ambulatory blood pressure monitoringCorrect answer: A
- B.Ambulatory electrocardiographic monitoring
- C.Transthoracic echocardiographic examination
- D.Exercise electrocardiographic stress testing
Explanation: "If clinic blood pressure is between 140/90 mmHg and 180/120 mmHg, offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension." The clinic reading falls within this interval. The other investigations assess rhythm, cardiac structure or inducible ischaemia rather than confirming sustained hypertension.
Reference: NHS Somerset cardiovascular prescribing guidance — Diagnosing Hypertension
6A patient spends hours repeating handwashing rituals to neutralise intrusive contamination fears. They recognise that the rituals are excessive but feel driven to perform them. Which diagnosis best explains this presentation?
- A.Generalised anxiety disorder
- B.Obsessive compulsive disorderCorrect answer: B
- C.Schizotypal personality disorder
- D.Somatic symptom disorder
Explanation: "Compulsions start as a way of trying to reduce or prevent anxiety caused by the obsessive thought, although in reality, this behaviour is either excessive or not realistically connected." Intrusive unwanted fears followed by anxiety-relieving rituals with insight are characteristic of OCD rather than the other disorders.
7A patient develops intermittent ptosis and diplopia that worsen late in the day and improve after rest. Pupils are normal. Which diagnosis is most likely?
- A.Myasthenia gravisCorrect answer: A
- B.Oculomotor nerve palsy
- C.Horner syndrome
- D.Thyroid eye disease
Explanation: "It tends to be worse when you're tired and gets better after resting." Fatigable ocular muscle weakness with recovery after rest characterises myasthenia. Fixed cranial nerve palsy, sympathetic dysfunction and thyroid orbitopathy do not explain this fatigability pattern.
Reference: NHS myasthenia gravis symptoms — Symptoms: introductory description of fluctuating muscle weakness
8A palliative-care patient starts regular morphine and has no diarrhoea or bowel obstruction. Which accompanying medicine class addresses the common persistent bowel adverse effect?
- A.Antiemetic medicines
- B.Antisecretory medicines
- C.Antispasmodic medicines
- D.Laxative medicinesCorrect answer: D
Explanation: "Constipation is very common. You should be prescribed a laxative to take regularly, while you are on opioid medicines." A laxative prevents or treats opioid-associated constipation. Antiemetics address nausea, antisecretory drugs reduce secretions and antispasmodics address spasm.
Reference: Leeds Teaching Hospitals opioids in palliative care — 4. What are the most common side-effects of opioids?
9A woman has fever, dysuria, vomiting and unilateral loin tenderness with a positive urine culture. Which diagnosis best accounts for the systemic illness and loin pain?
- A.Acute pyelonephritisCorrect answer: A
- B.Uncomplicated cystitis
- C.Urethral syndrome
- D.Acute interstitial nephritis
Explanation: "a high temperature feeling or being sick pain in your lower back or side" Fever and loin symptoms with urinary infection suggest upper-tract infection, or pyelonephritis. The other conditions do not explain this systemic upper-tract presentation.
Reference: NHS kidney infection — Symptoms of a kidney infection
10A patient develops a mechanical small-bowel obstruction years after abdominal surgery. There is no hernia or tumour on assessment. Which cause best explains this obstruction?
- A.Abdominal adhesionsCorrect answer: A
- B.Mesenteric arterial embolism
- C.Sigmoid diverticulitis
- D.Acute pancreatitis
Explanation: "Abdominal adhesions are the most common cause of obstruction of the small intestine." Adhesions explain postoperative mechanical obstruction. The other abdominal disorders do not best explain this mechanical postoperative presentation.
Reference: NIDDK abdominal adhesions — Intestinal obstruction
Exam Review
About PLAB 1
PLAB 1 · GB
Key exam facts
- Provider
- The General Medical Council (GMC) runs PLAB 1. VICTVS delivers and invigilates UK and EU sittings on behalf of the GMC; the British Council supplies venue information for other international sittings.
- Format
- Written applied knowledge examination: clinical scenarios with one correct answer selected from five options; answers recorded on an answer sheet.
- Exam questions
- Total questions: 180.
- Time limit
- Three hours of answering time for the standard examination.
- Passing score
- The pass mark is set separately for each test using the Angoff method and includes one standard error of measurement. Each correct answer earns one mark; the total correct is the score. No fixed percentage pass mark is specified.
- Exam fee
- GBP £283 for PLAB Part 1, effective 1 April 2026. Refugee doctors living in the UK receive their first two PLAB 1 attempts free of charge.
Topics covered
Acute and emergency
Cancer
Cardiovascular
Child health
Clinical haematology
Clinical imaging
Dermatology
Ear, nose and throat
Endocrine, diabetes and metabolic
Gastrointestinal (GI)
General practice and primary healthcare
Infection
Medicine of the older adult
Mental health
Musculoskeletal
Neurosciences
Obstetrics and gynaecology
Ophthalmology
Palliative and end of life care
Perioperative medicine and anaesthesia
Renal and urology
Respiratory
Sexual health
Surgery
How to prepare
Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.
These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.
Frequently asked questions
What is the exam format?
Written applied knowledge examination: clinical scenarios with one correct answer selected from five options; answers recorded on an answer sheet.
How many questions are on the exam?
Total questions: 180.
How long is the exam?
Three hours of answering time for the standard examination.
What is the passing score?
The pass mark is set separately for each test using the Angoff method and includes one standard error of measurement. Each correct answer earns one mark; the total correct is the score. No fixed percentage pass mark is specified.
How much does the exam cost?
GBP £283 for PLAB Part 1, effective 1 April 2026. Refugee doctors living in the UK receive their first two PLAB 1 attempts free of charge.
Official sources and references
- GMC: PLAB 1 preparation resources
The Medical Licensing Assessment (MLA) content map
- GMC: MLA content map
PDF page 2
- GMC current MLA map applicability
MLA content map
- GMC PLAB and MLA
PLAB 1 and the Medical Licensing Assessment (MLA) requirements
- GMC external examiner report 2024
Sampling
- GMC MLA content map
printed page 21 (PDF page 22)
- GMC Practical skills and procedures
page 3: Generic requirements
- GMC: What is the PLAB 1 exam?
How do you answer the questions?
- GMC PLAB 1 results
How do we set the pass mark?
- GMC PLAB 1 results
How do we work out your score?
- GMC fees for doctors
PLAB fees: 2025 and 2026 columns
- GMC booking a PLAB 1 place
Are there any concessions for refugees?
- GMC when and where PLAB 1
When can you take the exam?
- GMC PLAB 1 delivery
Where can you take the exam?
- GMC international PLAB 1 delivery
Where can you take the exam? — British Council paragraph
- GMC PLAB 1 answer format
How do you answer the questions? — five-option answer sentence
Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.