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Free Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery Section 1 Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery Section 1 practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1During emergency airway planning, a surgeon palpates the cricothyroid membrane. Which pair of cartilages bounds this membrane?

    1. A.Thyroid and epiglottic
    2. B.Thyroid and cricoidCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Cricoid and arytenoid
    4. D.Arytenoid and corniculate

    Explanation: The trauma manual places the membrane "between the thyroid cartilage (Adam's apple) above, and the horizontal cricoid cartilage below." It therefore lies between the thyroid cartilage superiorly and cricoid cartilage inferiorly; the other pairs describe different laryngeal relationships.

    Reference: Royal Children's Hospital Trauma Manual – Airway procedures — Needle cricothyroidotomy – Surface markings

  2. 2While exposing a mandibular angle fracture through a submandibular approach, which facial nerve branch is the principal neural structure at risk?

    1. A.Temporal branch
    2. B.Zygomatic branch
    3. C.Buccal branch
    4. D.Marginal mandibular branchCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The source states: "The main neural structure is the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve (CN VII)." The approach crosses the territory of the lower facial motor branch, rather than the temporal, zygomatic or buccal branches.

    Reference: AO Surgery Reference – Submandibular approach — §1, Neurovascular structures

  3. 3Before sagittal split ramus osteotomy, CT is reviewed to locate the nerve within the mandible that is especially vulnerable during splitting. Which nerve is being mapped?

    1. A.Lingual nerve
    2. B.Buccal nerve
    3. C.Inferior alveolar nerveCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Auriculotemporal nerve

    Explanation: The source states: "intraoperative injury to the inferior alveolar nerve (IAN) remains one of the common complications." The inferior alveolar nerve runs within the mandibular surgical region and is the nerve identified as at risk during SSRO; the other mandibular-division branches have different courses.

    Reference: Avoiding Inferior Alveolar Nerve Injury During Sagittal Split Ramus Osteotomy — Abstract

  4. 4Following neck dissection, a patient has shoulder droop and difficulty reaching above the head. Injury to which nerve best explains this deficit?

    1. A.Hypoglossal nerve
    2. B.Accessory nerveCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Phrenic nerve
    4. D.Vagus nerve

    Explanation: Cambridge University Hospitals – Neck dissection states: "Loss of the accessory nerve can also lead to permanent shoulder drop and stiffness following surgery." Accessory nerve injury impairs shoulder elevation and overhead movement after this operation.

    Reference: Cambridge University Hospitals – Neck dissection — Risks, nerve damage

  5. 5During examination for recurrent parotitis, the surgeon looks for the parotid duct papilla. Opposite which tooth does it normally open?

    1. A.Upper second molarCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Upper first premolar
    3. C.Lower second molar
    4. D.Lower first premolar

    Explanation: BAOMS – Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery: An Illustrated Guide states: "oral cavity opposite the upper second molar tooth." The parotid duct opens through buccal mucosa opposite the upper second molar.

    Reference: BAOMS – Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery: An Illustrated Guide — Chapter 4.1, p. 71

  6. 6Before operating in the floor of the mouth, a surgeon identifies the nerve carrying general sensation and taste fibres from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Which nerve is at risk locally?

    1. A.Hypoglossal nerve
    2. B.Long buccal nerve
    3. C.Mental nerve
    4. D.Lingual nerveCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: BAOMS – Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery: An Illustrated Guide states: "lingual nerve – supplying sensation and taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue – runs close by." The lingual nerve carries these fibres through the floor of the mouth; hypoglossal is motor, and the other branches serve different sensory territories.

    Reference: BAOMS – Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery: An Illustrated Guide — Chapter 4.1, p. 72

  7. 7When assessing the depth of a facial skin wound, the surgeon identifies the layer containing sweat glands and cutaneous blood vessels immediately beneath the epidermis. Which layer is this?

    1. A.Subcutaneous fat
    2. B.Deep fascia
    3. C.DermisCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Epidermis

    Explanation: National Institutes of Health – Healthy Skin states: "The dermis is the next layer down, hidden under the epidermis. This layer contains blood vessels, nerve endings, and oil and sweat glands." The dermis contains these adnexal and vascular structures beneath the epidermis.

    Reference: National Institutes of Health – Healthy Skin — Skin structure

  8. 8During antenatal counselling, the team explains the developmental mechanism of a cleft palate. Which process has failed?

    1. A.Fusion of the palatal halvesCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Mineralisation of palatal bone
    3. C.Remodelling of palatal bone
    4. D.Resorption of palatal bone

    Explanation: Great Ormond Street Hospital – Cleft palate states: "the two halves do not join together as they should. This leaves a gap in the palate." A cleft results from failed joining of the developing palatal halves, rather than a primary defect of bone mineralisation, remodelling or resorption.

    Reference: Great Ormond Street Hospital – Cleft palate — What causes a cleft palate?

  9. 9An infant has suspected craniosynostosis requiring coordinated assessment of skull growth, vision, airway and possible surgery. Which specialist service should coordinate this assessment?

    1. A.Cleft lip and palate team
    2. B.Orthognathic surgery team
    3. C.Craniofacial multidisciplinary teamCorrect answer: C
    4. D.General paediatric dentistry team

    Explanation: Great Ormond Street Hospital – Craniofacial Unit states: "Our multidisciplinary team diagnoses and treats all forms of craniosynostosis as well as other conditions affecting the skull and face." A specialist craniofacial MDT coordinates the multiple relevant assessments, rather than a service focused on cleft, jaw deformity or dental care.

    Reference: Great Ormond Street Hospital – Craniofacial Unit — Conditions treated, introduction

  10. 10An upper posterior tooth is being assessed before extraction because its root apices closely approach a paranasal cavity. Which cavity has this important relationship?

    1. A.Frontal sinus
    2. B.Sphenoidal sinus
    3. C.Ethmoidal air cells
    4. D.Maxillary sinusCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: BAOMS – Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery: An Illustrated Guide states: "the risk of tearing the maxillary sinus lining when removing such teeth." The maxillary sinus lies close to upper posterior root apices, creating the risk of an oroantral communication during extraction.

    Reference: BAOMS – Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery: An Illustrated Guide — Chapter 7, Dental relationships to the maxillary sinus, pp. 122–123

Exam Review

About Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery Section 1

Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery Section 1 · GB

Key exam facts

Provider
JCIE governs the Intercollegiate Specialty Board examination on behalf of the four surgical Royal Colleges of Great Britain and Ireland. Pearson VUE delivers Section 1 CBT at test centres; it is the delivery provider, not the examination owner.
Format
Section 1 only: two written Single Best Answer (SBA) papers taken on the same day, delivered by computer-based testing at Pearson VUE centres in the UK and Ireland. Section 2 clinical/oral assessments are separate and excluded.
Exam questions
Total questions: 240.
Time limit
2 hours 15 minutes per paper (4 hours 30 minutes of answer time across the two papers on the same day). This excludes any check-in, tutorial or between-paper break.
Passing score
The pass mark is standard-set for each sitting: Angoff cut score for the minimum performance of a competent day-one consultant, plus one Standard Error of Measurement (SEM), after review/removal of problematic items. A single fixed percentage is not specified by this method.
Exam fee
GBP £580 for Section 1 for examinations through 31 December 2026, increasing to £600 for examinations from 1 January 2027. The combined Section 1+2 entry fee (£2,000 through 2026; £2,070 from 2027) is payable in full on initial application and credited to the candidate fee account; resit section fees are deducted from that account.

Topics covered

  • Airway Module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Pathology
    • Applied Physiology
    • Surgical Equipment
    • Indications and Risks
    • Critical Conditions causing acute airway obstruction – basic science, pathology, complications
    • Consent
  • Craniofacial Trauma Module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Pathology
    • Physiology
    • Diagnostics
    • Classification of craniofacial injuries
    • Pain
    • Psychology
    • Biomechanics
    • Complications and risks of conservative and operative management
    • Critical Conditions – basic science, pathology, complications
    • Consent
  • Jaw deformity Module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Pathology
    • Orthodontics
    • Assessment
    • Treatment planning
    • Biomechanics
    • Post- traumatic deformity
    • Complications of orthognathic procedures
  • Facial Pain and TMJ Module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Physiology
    • Pathology
    • Diagnostics
    • Prescribing and therapeutics
    • Psychology
    • Multidisciplinary Care
  • Head and Neck Module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Pathology & Diagnostics excluding thyroid and parathyroid glands
    • Pathology & Diagnostics of thyroid and parathyroid glands
    • Physiology
    • Radiology/Imaging and special investigations
    • Classification of mandibular/maxillary resections
    • Psychology
    • Biomechanics
    • Complications and risks of surgical interventions for H&N cancer
    • Critical Conditions
    • Surgical Instrumentation
    • Non-Surgical & Adjuvant Treatments
  • Conditions of the Salivary Glands Module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Pathology
    • Physiology
    • Diagnostics
    • Classification of Salivary Gland Swellings
    • Pain
    • Systemic disease affecting the salivary glands
    • Radiology
    • Complications and risks of conservative and operative management
    • Critical Conditions
  • Conditions of the oral mucosa

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Pathology
    • Physiology
    • Diagnostics
    • Classification of conditions of the oral mucosa
    • Multi- disciplinary care
    • Psychology
    • Pain
    • Radiology
    • Pharmacology
    • Critical Conditions
  • Conditions of the skin module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Pathology
    • Physiology
    • Diagnostics
    • Classification of skin conditions
    • Multi- disciplinary care
    • Psychology
    • Pain
    • Dermatology
    • Radiology
    • Non-surgical management of skin cancer
    • Complications and risks of conservative and operative management
    • Critical Conditions – basic science, pathology, complications
    • Relevant Guidelines
  • Restoration of Normal Aesthetic Form and Function Module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Applied Anatomy and standard norms of specific areas of the head and neck
    • Physiology and Pathology
    • Psychology
    • Non-Surgical Treatment Options
  • Cleft lip and Palate Module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Pathology
    • Physiology
    • Genetics
    • Diagnostics
    • Classification of cleft lip and palate
    • Pain
    • Roles and contributions of members of the multidisciplinary team
    • Psychology
    • Biomechanics
    • Complications of operative management
    • Critical Conditions – basic science, pathology, complications
  • Craniofacial Module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Craniofacial Principles
    • Applied anatomy
    • Pathology
    • Physiology
    • Diagnostics
    • Classification / Treatment Principles and Protocols of craniofacial conditions
    • Pain
    • Biomechanics
    • Complications and risks of conservative and operative management
    • Critical Conditions – basic science, pathology, complications
    • Post- traumatic deformity
  • Dentoalveolar Module

    • Applied Knowledge
    • Anatomy
    • Pathology
    • Physiology
    • Diagnostics
    • Classification
    • Clinical pharmacology
    • Psychology
    • Biomechanics
    • Complications and risks of conservative and operative management
    • Critical Conditions – basic science, pathology, complications
    • Multidisciplinary Working

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Section 1 only: two written Single Best Answer (SBA) papers taken on the same day, delivered by computer-based testing at Pearson VUE centres in the UK and Ireland. Section 2 clinical/oral assessments are separate and excluded.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 240.

How long is the exam?

2 hours 15 minutes per paper (4 hours 30 minutes of answer time across the two papers on the same day). This excludes any check-in, tutorial or between-paper break.

What is the passing score?

The pass mark is standard-set for each sitting: Angoff cut score for the minimum performance of a competent day-one consultant, plus one Standard Error of Measurement (SEM), after review/removal of problematic items. A single fixed percentage is not specified by this method.

How much does the exam cost?

GBP £580 for Section 1 for examinations through 31 December 2026, increasing to £600 for examinations from 1 January 2027. The combined Section 1+2 entry fee (£2,000 through 2026; £2,070 from 2027) is payable in full on initial application and credited to the candidate fee account; resit section fees are deducted from that account.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.