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Free MRCP(UK) Part 2 written exam Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the MRCP(UK) Part 2 written exam practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1A patient with heart failure has increasing ankle oedema from fluid retention. Which medicine directly increases urinary fluid loss?

    1. A.Enalapril
    2. B.Candesartan
    3. C.Bisoprolol
    4. D.FurosemideCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The NHS states: "make you pee more to reduce fluid build-up in your body (diuretics), such as furosemide". Furosemide is a diuretic and targets the fluid accumulation; the other medicines act principally through vascular or heart-rate effects.

    Reference: NHS: Heart failure — Medicines

  2. 2A 22-year-old has recurrent scaly plaques on the elbows and knees, with pits in several fingernails. Which diagnosis is most likely?

    1. A.PsoriasisCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Atopic eczema
    3. C.Lichen planus
    4. D.Pityriasis versicolor

    Explanation: The NHS states: "The surface of your nails can have dents and pits.". The plaque distribution and nail pitting favour psoriasis.

    Reference: NHS: psoriasis — Symptoms of psoriasis

  3. 3A patient has weight loss, heat intolerance and tremor. Which thyroid test pattern most strongly supports hyperthyroidism?

    1. A.High TSH with low free T4
    2. B.High TSH with normal free T4
    3. C.Low TSH with low free T4
    4. D.Low TSH with high free T4Correct answer: D

    Explanation: The NHS states: "A low level of TSH and high levels of T3 and/or T4 usually means you have an overactive thyroid.". The suppressed TSH and raised thyroid hormone pattern supports thyroid hormone excess.

    Reference: NHS: thyroid-d — Thyroid function blood test

  4. 4An older patient with dementia develops confusion abruptly over a few hours rather than a gradual decline. Which syndrome requires urgent assessment for an underlying cause?

    1. A.Mild cognitive impairment
    2. B.Alzheimer's disease
    3. C.Frontotemporal dementia
    4. D.DeliriumCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The NHS states: "Get medical help immediately if someone suddenly becomes confused (delirious).". An acute change from baseline raises delirium rather than a slowly progressive neurodegenerative disorder.

    Reference: NHS: delirium — Sudden confusion (delirium)

  5. 5An adult has tuberculosis infection identified on testing, but no symptoms or evidence of active disease. Which term describes this state?

    1. A.Tuberculous meningitis
    2. B.Latent tuberculosisCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Active pulmonary tuberculosis
    4. D.Miliary tuberculosis

    Explanation: The NHS states: "Sometimes you can have TB in your body but have no symptoms. This is called latent TB.". Latent infection is distinguished from active symptomatic disease.

    Reference: NHS: tb — Symptoms of tuberculosis (TB)

  6. 6A patient with glaucoma asks which nerve is damaged by the condition. Which structure is affected?

    1. A.Oculomotor nerve
    2. B.Trochlear nerve
    3. C.Abducens nerve
    4. D.Optic nerveCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The NHS states: "the main nerve, which connects the eye to the brain, becomes damaged.". Glaucoma injures the optic nerve, rather than a nerve controlling eye movement.

    Reference: NHS: glaucoma — Glaucoma

  7. 7A patient about to receive chemotherapy that may impair fertility wants to preserve the chance of having a biological child later. Which option should be discussed?

    1. A.Induction of ovulation
    2. B.Intrauterine insemination
    3. C.Cryopreservation of eggs or spermCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Embryo transfer

    Explanation: The NHS states: "you may want to ask about options for storing your eggs or sperm.". Potential gonadotoxicity warrants fertility preservation discussion before exposure.

    Reference: NHS: chemo — Before you have chemotherapy

  8. 8A person with bipolar disorder has several days of markedly elevated mood, little need for sleep, rapid speech and extravagant spending. Which mood state best explains this pattern?

    1. A.Generalised anxiety disorder
    2. B.Obsessive-compulsive disorder
    3. C.Manic or hypomanic episodeCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Major depressive episode

    Explanation: The NHS states: "having a lot of energy, feeling restless or not needing much sleep". The elevated energy, reduced need for sleep and disinhibition fit an elevated mood episode.

    Reference: NHS: bipolar — High mood (mania and hypomania) symptoms

  9. 9A patient's renal function deteriorates acutely. Which blood measurement is used to identify the reduced kidney clearance?

    1. A.Amylase
    2. B.CreatinineCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Alanine aminotransferase
    4. D.Troponin

    Explanation: The NHS states: "Your blood will be checked for levels of creatinine". Creatinine rises when renal clearance deteriorates.

    Reference: NHS: aki — How acute kidney injury is diagnosed

  10. 10A patient with newly diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis asks why a DMARD is prescribed rather than analgesia alone. Which benefit is the principal additional aim?

    1. A.Reduce pain through opioid receptor activation
    2. B.Reduce pain through cyclo-oxygenase inhibition
    3. C.Reduce pain through central analgesic effects
    4. D.Suppress immune-driven joint injury and progressionCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The NHS states: "These medicines ease the symptoms of the condition and slow down its progression.". DMARDs modify inflammatory disease activity; analgesia alone does not achieve that purpose.

    Reference: NHS: ra — Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

Exam Review

About MRCP(UK) Part 2 written exam

MRCP(UK) Part 2 written exam · GB

Key exam facts

Provider
Federation of the Royal Colleges of Physicians (UK), a collaboration of the Edinburgh, Glasgow and London colleges; Surpass administers computer-based delivery.
Format
Two computer-based papers at test centres in the UK from 2026/2; best-of-five single-best-answer MCQs, including clinical scenarios and images. Myanmar and Sudan retain remote online proctoring.
Exam questions
Total questions: 200.
Time limit
Two papers of 3 hours each, taken on one day (6 hours of answering time); arrival, tutorials and breaks are not added to this duration.
Passing score
444 overall scaled ability score from 2026/1, using IRT equating; not a percentage. Most scaled scores lie between 200 and 800, with values outside possible.
Exam fee
GBP 520 for UK centres and GBP 696 internationally for 2026/3 and listed 2027 diets; Hong Kong has a different application process/fee. Earlier 2026/1 and 2026/2 fees were GBP 502 UK and GBP 672 international.

Topics covered

  • Cardiology (9.5%)

  • Clinical pharmacology and therapeutics (9%)

  • Dermatology (4.5%)

  • Endocrinology, diabetes and metabolic medicine (9.5%)

  • Gastroenterology and hepatology (9.5%)

  • Geriatric medicine (4.5%)

  • Haematology (4.5%)

  • Infectious diseases (9.5%)

  • Medical ophthalmology (1.5%)

  • Neurology (8.5%)

  • Oncology (3%)

  • Palliative medicine and end-of-life care (1.5%)

  • Psychiatry (1.5%)

  • Renal medicine (9.5%)

  • Respiratory medicine (9.5%)

  • Rheumatology (4.5%)

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Two computer-based papers at test centres in the UK from 2026/2; best-of-five single-best-answer MCQs, including clinical scenarios and images. Myanmar and Sudan retain remote online proctoring.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 200.

How long is the exam?

Two papers of 3 hours each, taken on one day (6 hours of answering time); arrival, tutorials and breaks are not added to this duration.

What is the passing score?

444 overall scaled ability score from 2026/1, using IRT equating; not a percentage. Most scaled scores lie between 200 and 800, with values outside possible.

How much does the exam cost?

GBP 520 for UK centres and GBP 696 internationally for 2026/3 and listed 2027 diets; Hong Kong has a different application process/fee. Earlier 2026/1 and 2026/2 fees were GBP 502 UK and GBP 672 international.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.