OpenExamsFREE PRACTICE — ANY EXAM

Free MRCP(UK) Part 1 Practice Questions

150 free questions · Answer explanations · No signup required

View examination details, outline and sources

Loading selected examination banks…

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the MRCP(UK) Part 1 practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1In heart failure, which functional abnormality defines the condition?

    1. A.Complete cessation of cardiac activity
    2. B.Obstruction of every coronary artery
    3. C.Loss of all atrial electrical activity
    4. D.Inadequate pumping of bloodCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The NHS states: "Heart failure is when your heart cannot pump blood properly." Impaired pumping defines heart failure; arrest, universal coronary obstruction and absent atrial activity are different abnormalities.

    Reference: nhs-hf — NHS — Introduction

  2. 2Which cellular feature distinguishes a eukaryote from a prokaryote?

    1. A.A nucleus and membrane-bound organellesCorrect answer: A
    2. B.A cell membrane without any nucleus
    3. C.Cytoplasm without membrane-bound organelles
    4. D.Ribosomes without a membrane-bound nucleus

    Explanation: The source states: "A eukaryote has a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, while a prokaryote does not." A nucleus and membrane-bound organelles fits the source definition or the condition given in the stem.

    Reference: cell — NIH — Definition

  3. 3What produces thyroid hormone excess in Graves' disease?

    1. A.A thyroid nodule produces hormone independently
    2. B.Inflamed follicles release previously stored hormone
    3. C.Excess replacement hormone supplies an external source
    4. D.Autoantibodies stimulate thyroid hormone productionCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The source states: "the immune system produces antibodies that cause the thyroid to produce too much thyroid hormone" Antibody stimulation of the thyroid answers the specified clinical question; the alternatives describe different findings or mechanisms.

    Reference: thyroid — NHS — Causes

  4. 4What intestinal process causes malabsorption in coeliac disease?

    1. A.Immune-mediated small-bowel injury after glutenCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Pancreatic enzyme deficiency without mucosal injury
    3. C.Bile acid deficiency from biliary obstruction
    4. D.Bacterial overgrowth without gluten-specific injury

    Explanation: The source states: "This damages your gut (small intestine) so your body cannot properly take in nutrients." Immune-mediated small-bowel injury after gluten fits the stated mechanism or clinical setting.

    Reference: coeliac — NHS — Introduction

  5. 5What red-cell size pattern is associated with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency anaemia?

    1. A.Reduced mean red-cell size
    2. B.Normal mean size with low iron stores
    3. C.Normal mean size with isolated platelet excess
    4. D.Increased mean red-cell sizeCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The source states: "the body to produce abnormally large red blood cells that cannot function properly." Abnormally large cells explains the specific finding asked about.

    Reference: anaemia — NHS — Overview

  6. 6Loss of neurons in which brain region is associated with Parkinson's disease?

    1. A.Hippocampus
    2. B.Substantia nigraCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Occipital cortex
    4. D.Cerebellar vermis

    Explanation: The source states: "Parkinson's disease is caused by a loss of nerve cells in part of the brain called the substantia nigra." Substantia nigra matches the pattern or mechanism described.

    Reference: parkinson — NHS — Causes

  7. 7Which ocular structure is characteristically damaged in the eye condition glaucoma?

    1. A.Crystalline lens
    2. B.Corneal epithelium
    3. C.Retinal pigment epithelium
    4. D.Optic nerveCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The source states: "This increase in pressure damages the nerve that connects the eye to the brain (optic nerve)." Optic nerve is consistent with the clinical distinction in the source.

    Reference: glaucoma — NHS — Causes

  8. 8When can palliative care be provided alongside disease-directed therapy?

    1. A.From diagnosis of a life-limiting illnessCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Only after all therapies are stopped
    3. C.Only during the final unconscious hours
    4. D.Only after admission to a hospice

    Explanation: The source states: "Palliative care is available when you first learn you have a life-limiting (terminal) illness." From diagnosis of a life-limiting illness is consistent with the clinical distinction in the source.

    Reference: palliative-2 — NHS — What is palliative care?

  9. 9Which blood marker is used in diagnosing acute kidney injury?

    1. A.Troponin
    2. B.Amylase
    3. C.CreatinineCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Bilirubin

    Explanation: The source states: "Your blood will be checked for levels of creatinine" Creatinine matches the clinical feature or care principle being tested.

    Reference: aki — NHS — Diagnosis

  10. 10What tissue is attacked by the immune system in rheumatoid arthritis?

    1. A.Only cartilage worn by mechanical loading
    2. B.Only the enthesis after repetitive strain
    3. C.Cells lining the synovial jointsCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Urate deposits within the joint cavity

    Explanation: The source states: "attacks the cells that line your joints by mistake" The lining of the joints answers the specific mechanism or management question.

    Reference: ra — NHS — Causes

Exam Review

About MRCP(UK) Part 1

MRCP(UK) Part 1 · GB

Key exam facts

Provider
Developed and delivered by MRCP(UK), within the Federation of the Royal Colleges of Physicians of the UK; Surpass administers computer-based testing at test centres.
Format
Two computer-based papers at a test centre; best-of-five multiple-choice, one correct answer and four alternatives; no images. Myanmar/Sudan remote exceptions do not change the GB format.
Exam questions
Total questions: 200.
Time limit
Three hours of answering time per paper, six hours total over one day; reporting and the interval between papers are additional.
Passing score
Overall scaled ability score of 450 from the 2026/1 diet; equated using Item Response Theory, not a percentage. Scores usually 200–800 but may lie outside that range.
Exam fee
2026/3 and 2027 diets: GBP £520 for UK centres; £696 international, with separate Hong Kong arrangements. Eligible UK refugee-status candidates may qualify for a £50 concession under the regulations.

Topics covered

  • Cardiology (7%)

  • Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics (7.5%)

  • Clinical sciences (12.5%)

    • Cell, molecular and membrane biology
    • Clinical anatomy
    • Clinical biochemistry and metabolism
    • Clinical physiology
    • Genetics
    • Immunology
    • Statistics, epidemiology and evidence-based medicine
  • Dermatology (4%)

  • Endocrinology, diabetes and metabolic medicine (7%)

  • Gastroenterology and Hepatology (7%)

  • Geriatric medicine (4%)

  • Haematology (5%)

  • Infectious diseases (7%)

  • Neurology (7%)

  • Oncology (2.5%)

  • Medical ophthalmology (2%)

  • Palliative medicine and end of life care (2%)

  • Psychiatry (4.5%)

  • Renal medicine (7%)

  • Respiratory medicine (7%)

  • Rheumatology (7%)

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Two computer-based papers at a test centre; best-of-five multiple-choice, one correct answer and four alternatives; no images. Myanmar/Sudan remote exceptions do not change the GB format.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 200.

How long is the exam?

Three hours of answering time per paper, six hours total over one day; reporting and the interval between papers are additional.

What is the passing score?

Overall scaled ability score of 450 from the 2026/1 diet; equated using Item Response Theory, not a percentage. Scores usually 200–800 but may lie outside that range.

How much does the exam cost?

2026/3 and 2027 diets: GBP £520 for UK centres; £696 international, with separate Hong Kong arrangements. Eligible UK refugee-status candidates may qualify for a £50 concession under the regulations.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.