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Free ICAEW ACA Business Law Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the ICAEW ACA Business Law practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1A proposal to change English legislation has been introduced for debate in Parliament. Before enactment, what is this proposal called?

    1. A.An Act of Parliament
    2. B.A statutory instrument
    3. C.A BillCorrect answer: C
    4. D.A judicial precedent

    Explanation: The source states: "A Bill is a proposal for a new law, or a proposal to change an existing law, that is presented for debate before Parliament." A proposal under parliamentary debate is a Bill. An Act is enacted primary legislation, a statutory instrument is a form of secondary legislation, and a precedent arises from judicial decisions.

    Reference: UK Parliament: How are laws made? — What is a bill?

  2. 2A wholesaler and retailer orally agree all terms of an ordinary goods sale. No special statutory formality applies. Which statement about the form of their agreement is correct?

    1. A.It must be witnessed before either party can enforce it
    2. B.It must be registered before the sale can become binding
    3. C.It must be executed as a deed to transfer any goods
    4. D.It may form a sale contract despite being entirely oralCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The Act states: "a contract of sale may be made in writing (either with or without seal), or by word of mouth" Section 4 permits an oral sale contract; the facts exclude any special formality. Witnessing, registration and execution as a deed are not general conditions for this ordinary sale.

    Reference: Sale of Goods Act 1979 — s.4(1)

  3. 3What legal effect of incorporation is stated in section 16(2) of the Companies Act 2006?

    1. A.The subscribers remain the sole legal persons carrying on the business
    2. B.The subscribers and later members constitute a body corporate under the registered nameCorrect answer: B
    3. C.The company becomes an agent of each member for every transaction
    4. D.The company acquires legal personality only after its first profitable year

    Explanation: The authority states: "are a body corporate by the name stated in the certificate of incorporation." Registration creates the body corporate from incorporation. It is not merely a continuing unincorporated group, automatic agency or a status dependent on future profits.

    Reference: Companies Act 2006 — s.16(2)

  4. 4An accountant knowingly conceals domestic criminal proceeds. No statutory defence or exception applies. They argue that money laundering requires moving the money abroad. Which statement correctly applies section 327 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002?

    1. A.The funds must first be transferred outside the United Kingdom
    2. B.The accountant must personally own all the criminal property
    3. C.Concealment can be an offence without a cross-border transferCorrect answer: C
    4. D.The accountant must already be convicted of the underlying crime

    Explanation: Section 327 expressly includes a person who "conceals criminal property;". Concealment is itself listed conduct; the offence is not restricted to moving funds abroad, personal ownership or a prior conviction of the concealer. The facts establish knowledge and exclude statutory exceptions.

    Reference: Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 — s.327(1)(a)–(b)

  5. 5A payroll team defines the personal data genuinely needed to calculate pay. Which collection approach follows the UK GDPR data-minimisation principle?

    1. A.Collect every detail an employee volunteers, regardless of payroll relevance
    2. B.Collect adequate, relevant data limited to what that payroll purpose requiresCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Collect extra personal histories solely because a future use might emerge
    4. D.Collect so little information that correct pay cannot be calculated

    Explanation: The source states: "adequate, relevant and limited to what is necessary in relation to the purposes for which they are processed" Minimisation requires enough relevant information for the stated purpose, but no unnecessary excess. Voluntary provision or speculative future usefulness does not remove that requirement, and inadequate data is not the goal.

    Reference: UK General Data Protection Regulation — Art.5(1)(c)

  6. 6What supplies the legal authority for secondary legislation made to change detailed rules?

    1. A.Powers provided by an existing Act of ParliamentCorrect answer: A
    2. B.An election promise made by the governing party
    3. C.Agreement reached by the affected trade association
    4. D.A recommendation issued by a parliamentary committee

    Explanation: The source states: "Secondary legislation is used to make changes to law if the existing act of Parliament allows it." Secondary legislation depends on authority granted by an existing Act. A promise, trade agreement or committee recommendation does not itself confer legislative power.

    Reference: UK Parliament: How are laws made? — What is Secondary Legislation?

  7. 7A contract expressly gives enforcement rights to any company within a defined group, including a subsidiary that will be formed next year. Must that subsidiary already exist when the contract is made to be identified as a third-party beneficiary under section 1(3) of the 1999 Act?

    1. A.Yes, because a beneficiary must sign the original contract
    2. B.No, because the specified beneficiary need not yet existCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Yes, because only companies named individually qualify
    4. D.No, because every future company can enforce the term

    Explanation: The Act states: "The third party must be expressly identified in the contract by name, as a member of a class or as answering a particular description but need not be in existence when the contract is entered into." Identification by the defined class is sufficient even before the subsidiary exists. This does not give rights to every future company, and signature or individual naming is not required by subsection (3).

    Reference: Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999 — s.1(3)

  8. 8In a company limited by shares, to what amount is a member's liability as member limited under section 3(2) of the Companies Act 2006?

    1. A.All debts outstanding when the member joined the company
    2. B.The total nominal capital held by every member collectively
    3. C.The amount, if any, unpaid on that member's sharesCorrect answer: C
    4. D.The amount of dividends received since the company was formed

    Explanation: The authority states: "limited to the amount, if any, unpaid on the shares held by them" This concerns the member's unpaid share amount. It is distinct from the company's own debts, aggregate capital and past dividends; other personal liabilities are not being asked about.

    Reference: Companies Act 2006 — s.3(2)

  9. 9A regulated-sector accountant suspects a named client is laundering money based on information received in that work. No privilege, reasonable excuse or other exemption applies. What does section 330 require concerning the timing of the required disclosure to the nominated officer or authorised recipient?

    1. A.As soon as practicable after the relevant information comes to the accountantCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Only after the client has agreed that the suspicion is well founded
    3. C.At the next annual review, even if an earlier report is practicable
    4. D.Only after a criminal conviction proves the laundering occurred

    Explanation: The legislation states: "as soon as is practicable after the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) comes to him." The disclosure duty is prompt in the statutory sense, not conditional on client agreement or conviction and not deferred automatically until the annual review.

    Reference: Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 — s.330(4)

  10. 10What does the UK GDPR integrity-and-confidentiality principle require a business to do when handling personal data?

    1. A.Guarantee that no security incident can ever occur
    2. B.Use paper records instead of technical safeguards in every case
    3. C.Rely on employee consent instead of organisational security
    4. D.Apply appropriate technical or organisational measures to secure the dataCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The source states: "using appropriate technical or organisational measures" The obligation is appropriate security measures, including protection against unauthorised processing and accidental loss. It is not an absolute guarantee, a paper-only rule or a safeguard waived by consent.

    Reference: UK General Data Protection Regulation — Art.5(1)(f)

Exam Review

About ICAEW ACA Business Law

ICAEW ACA Business Law · GB

Key exam facts

Provider
Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales (ICAEW), the ACA examination owner and assessment provider.
Format
On-demand computer-based examination using multiple-choice, multi-part multiple-choice and multiple-response questions.
Exam questions
Total questions: 50.
Time limit
90 minutes of examination time. An optional five-minute post-exam survey, included in appointment length for exams scheduled after 1 March 2026, is not examination time; access arrangements may change individual timing.
Passing score
55% pass mark.
Exam fee
The official fee schedule published at 30 October 2026 quotes GBP £99 per Certificate Level exam entry for 2026, payable on registration. Fees are year-specific; this figure is not represented as a verified 2027 tariff. Tuition, learning materials and annual student fees are separate.

Topics covered

  • Introduction to legal principles (10%)

    • English legal system
    • a. recognise the relationships and interaction between civil and criminal law, legal principles, legislation, case law, ethics and ethical codes;
    • b. outline the structure of the English system of courts;
    • c. explain the role and benefi ts of alternative dispute resolution;
    • d. explain the purpose and impact of the European Convention on Human Rights and the Human Rights Act 1998; and
    • International law and regulations
    • e. recognise situations when laws and regulations other than English law may be applicable to an organisation, including: • international regulation of trade between organisations (International Chamber of Commerce (ICC) Incoterms, the UN Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods); and • Sharia law relating to Islamic fi nance.
  • The impact of civil law on business and professional services (30%)

    • Contract
    • a. recognise when a legally binding contract exists between two parties and how a contract may be enforced;
    • b. identify the circumstances under which a contract can be terminated and possible remedies for breach of contract;
    • Agency
    • c. identify the role of agents, their duties and rights, and their authority to enter contracts on behalf of a principal;
    • d. identify the nature of a partnership and the authority given to partners;
    • Negligence and liability
    • e. identify instances and consequences of negligence (particularly negligent misstatement) in a given scenario; and
    • f. identify instances and consequences of vicarious liability in a given scenario.
  • Company and insolvency law (40%)

    • Incorporation
    • Financing and capital
    • Ownership and management
    • Insolvency
    • a. identify the differences between unincorporated businesses (sole traderships and partnerships), limited liability partnerships and companies, show the advantages and disadvantages of incorporation and recognise the circumstances when the veil of incorporation can be lifted;
    • b. identify the procedures required to form a registered company or a limited liability partnership, including any practical considerations, and the nature and contractual force of a company’s memorandum and articles of association and identify the advantages and disadvantages of off-the-shelf companies;
    • c. explain the role and duties of the promoter of a company and the impact of contracts made before the company’s incorporation;
    • d. identify the administrative consequences of incorporation or the formation of a limited liability partnership including requirements regarding statutory books, accounts and meetings;
    • e. explain the procedures for the issue of shares, including issues at a premium or a discount and pre-emption rights;
    • f. outline the legal processes by which companies raise equity, capital and other long-term fi nance, including placings and initial public offerings;
    • g. identify the requirements of the Companies Act 2006 in respect of companies’ statutory accounts and audit, including the exemptions for small and medium-sized companies and micro-entities;
    • h. explain the legal requirements for aspects of capital maintenance including: • reduction of capital • redemption and purchase of a company’s own shares • fi nancial assistance for the purchase of a company’s own shares • distribution of profi ts;
    • i. explain how shares may be transferred;
    • j. recognise how a shareholder can infl uence the management of a company through meetings and resolutions, including shareholders’ rights to requisition a meeting;
    • k. identify the various statutory rights of shareholders to challenge the management of the company under the Companies Act 2006 and the Insolvency Act 1986;
    • l. identify the rights and duties which a member of a limited liability partnership possesses;
    • m. specify the ways in which a director or a company secretary may be appointed and removed, including disqualifi cation of directors;
    • n. identify directors’ duties, including responsibility for maintaining sustainable business practices, explaining the consequences of any major breach;
    • o. identify the powers of directors and the company secretary and in what circumstances they will bind the company in a contract with third parties;
    • p. specify the nature of fi xed and fl oating charges, the rationale for the selection of a particular type of charge and the procedures for registering them;
    • q. identify the nature and function of: • company voluntary arrangements • administration orders • receivership • compulsory and voluntary liquidation (including relevance of secured debt); and
    • r. identify the main impact of insolvency procedures, including: the principal means of termination of companies or other business entities the priorities on a liquidation of the distribution of assets including rights of creditors and employees (including secured assets) the avoidance of charges.
  • The impact of criminal law on business and professional services (10%)

    • a. identify offences and their consequences under the anti-money laundering legislation, identify the obligations on professional accountants to detect and help prevent money laundering, and select appropriate courses of action to protect professional accountants from criminal liability;
    • b. identify instances and consequences of bribery;
    • c. identify instances and consequences of fraud in a given scenario, including: • the effect of the Fraud Act 2006 • threats to consumers through cybercrime • offences committed under the Computer Misuse Act 1990 • fraudulent trading • insider dealing; and
    • d. identify circumstances where professional accountants will be protected from dismissal and victimisation if they raise concerns about malpractice in the workplace.
  • The impact of law in the professional context (10%)

    • Information and its legal environment
    • a. identify the key requirements of the Data Protection Act 2018 on the use of personal information and how the Act can affect the manner in which information systems are used by businesses;
    • Employment law
    • b. identify who is an employee and explain the main legal consequences of employment status;
    • c. identify the key features of employment contracts and recognise circumstances in which an employment contract may be terminated and the consequences arising;
    • d. identify when dismissal constitutes wrongful dismissal or unfair dismissal and the remedies available;
    • e. identify the circumstances where an employee can claim a statutory redundancy payment; and
    • f. identify the responsibilities of employers under the Equality Act 2010, the Modern Slavery Act 2015 and sustainability regulations.

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

On-demand computer-based examination using multiple-choice, multi-part multiple-choice and multiple-response questions.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 50.

How long is the exam?

90 minutes of examination time. An optional five-minute post-exam survey, included in appointment length for exams scheduled after 1 March 2026, is not examination time; access arrangements may change individual timing.

What is the passing score?

55% pass mark.

How much does the exam cost?

The official fee schedule published at 30 October 2026 quotes GBP £99 per Certificate Level exam entry for 2026, payable on registration. Fees are year-specific; this figure is not represented as a verified 2027 tariff. Tuition, learning materials and annual student fees are separate.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.