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Free HPE Network Security Professional Exam Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the HPE Network Security Professional Exam practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1When no known fingerprint matches a device, how does ClearPass Device Insight use machine learning?

    1. A.It groups unmatched devices using similar observed characteristicsCorrect answer: A
    2. B.It assigns every unmatched device to one known fingerprint
    3. C.It groups unmatched devices solely by an identical MAC address
    4. D.It waits for a known fingerprint before forming any groups

    Explanation: "If there is no match, machine learning models are used to group unknown devices that exhibit similar characteristics." The model groups similar unknown devices; it does not require an existing fingerprint match or group them solely by identical MAC address.

    Reference: HPE Aruba Networking ClearPass Device Insight data sheet — Page 2, Rich context and behavioral intelligence

  2. 2How does AOS-CX TACACS+ command authorization decide whether an authenticated administrator can execute a CLI command?

    1. A.It sends the command to the TACACS+ server for approvalCorrect answer: A
    2. B.It checks only whether the user's login password is valid
    3. C.Ask TACACS+ only at login and execute later commands without checks
    4. D.It permits any command after the user's role is assigned

    Explanation: "Each command is sent to the TACACS+ server for approval, and the switch then allows/disallows command execution according to the server response." Command authorization is separate from login authentication and evaluates each CLI command against the server response.

    Reference: TACACS+ authorization — TACACS+ authorization

  3. 3In an ArubaOS 8 WLAN AAA profile, which role is selected for unauthenticated users?

    1. A.Initial roleCorrect answer: A
    2. B.802.1X authentication default role
    3. C.MAC authentication default role
    4. D.Server-derived role

    Explanation: "Click the Initial Role drop-down list and select a role for unauthenticated users." The initial role applies before authentication; the other role settings apply to specific authentication or derivation outcomes.

    Reference: WLAN Authentication — AAA Profile Parameters, Initial role

  4. 4For AOS-CX MAC authentication, what does the switch send to the RADIUS server as the device's identifying credential?

    1. A.The device MAC addressCorrect answer: A
    2. B.The switch's management certificate
    3. C.The switch port's MAC address instead of the client device address
    4. D.The user's 802.1X password

    Explanation: "The RADIUS server uses the device MAC address as the user name and password" The endpoint's MAC address, not the switch port address or an 802.1X credential, is used as the MAC authentication identity.

    Reference: How MAC authentication works — How MAC authentication works

  5. 5Which function belongs to the SD-Branch Overlay Tunnel Orchestrator?

    1. A.Generate and manage IPsec tunnel configuration between devicesCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Distribute route prefixes instead of generating IPsec tunnel configuration
    3. C.Build IPsec tunnels without identifying WAN uplinks or their labels
    4. D.Use only static peer addresses and ignore interface uplink labels

    Explanation: "The Overlay Tunnel Orchestrator automatically generates and manages IPsec configuration between devices and identifies where devices should tunnel." The guide assigns routing distribution to the route orchestrator and describes use of uplink labels and interface addresses by the tunnel orchestrator.

    Reference: EdgeConnect SD-Branch Solution Overview — Overlay Tunnel Orchestrator

  6. 6What changes in Policy Manager 6.8.2 when Device Insight integration is enabled?

    1. A.Device Insight replaces Profiler for device discovery and classificationCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Profiler continues to classify devices and Device Insight is disabled
    3. C.Policy Manager stops collecting device information altogether
    4. D.All device classification must be entered manually

    Explanation: "Policy Manager seamlessly switches to using Device Insight instead of Profiler for all device discovery and classification functionality." The Policy Manager server also acts as a collector; discovery and classification move to Device Insight.

    Reference: About Device Insight — About Device Insight Integration Mode in Policy Manager

  7. 7An administrator manually acknowledges a Classic Central Gateway IDS/IPS alert. What happens to the aggregated event count?

    1. A.It is not reset and aggregation continuesCorrect answer: A
    2. B.It is reset to zero for all gateways
    3. C.It is frozen until the gateway is restarted
    4. D.It is converted into the signature severity

    Explanation: "As manually acknowledging an alert does not reset the count data, the alert service continues to aggregate events." An alert can be raised again when the aggregated count meets the threshold.

    Reference: Configure Gateway IDS/IPS Alerts — Alerts Acknowledgment, Manual acknowledgment

  8. 8An AOS-CX NAE rule has a condition but no action. What happens when its condition changes state?

    1. A.The rule does not generate an alert for that transitionCorrect answer: A
    2. B.The rule automatically creates a syslog action
    3. C.The condition alone always generates a default alert
    4. D.The rule invokes its clear action even though none is defined

    Explanation: "A rule that does not include actions do not generate an alert when a condition transitions to true or to false." A condition without an action does not generate an alert or automatically create an action.

    Reference: Network Analytics Engine Rules — Rules

  9. 9A Device Insight device has conflicting fingerprints and an unexpected category transition. Which system tag identifies this case?

    1. A.Suspected TransitionCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Expected Transition
    3. C.Library Update Transition
    4. D.User Tag

    Explanation: "Suspected Transition: Devices where there is an unexpected classification change." The suspected tag identifies an unexpected transition; expected and library-update transitions have different conditions.

    Reference: Managing Filters and Tags — Tags Overview, System Tags

  10. 10In Device Insight's Network Activity Sankey chart, what does the width of a line represent?

    1. A.The quantity of packets for the protocol or applicationCorrect answer: A
    2. B.The average packet size for the protocol or application
    3. C.The elapsed duration of the session in minutes
    4. D.The number of distinct client devices in the access role

    Explanation: "The width of the lines is proportional to the quantity of packets for each protocol or application." Line width reflects packet quantity, not average size, elapsed time or access-role membership.

    Reference: Device Details Network Tab — Network Activity Card

Exam Review

About HPE Network Security Professional Exam

HPE Network Security Professional Exam · US

Key exam facts

Provider
Pearson VUE
Format
Proctored question-based examination; English selected; Pearson testing center or OnVUE by appointment; no reference material allowed.
Exam questions
Total questions: 70.
Time limit
1 hour 45 minutes
Passing score
67%

Topics covered

  • Protect and Defend (26%)

    • Define security terminology
  • Protect and Defend (6%)

    • Device hardening
  • Protect and Defend (12%)

    • Secure WLAN
  • Protect and Defend (19%)

    • Secure wired AOS-CX
  • Protect and Defend (5%)

    • Secure the WAN
  • Protect and Defend (8%)

    • Endpoint classification
  • Analyze (9%)

    • Threat detection
  • Analyze (6%)

    • Troubleshooting
  • Analyze (8%)

    • Endpoint classification
  • Investigate (1%)

    • Forensics

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Proctored question-based examination; English selected; Pearson testing center or OnVUE by appointment; no reference material allowed.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 70.

How long is the exam?

1 hour 45 minutes

What is the passing score?

67%

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.