Free FE Industrial and Systems Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the FE Industrial and Systems practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1A circular plate has diameter 10 cm. What is its area?

   1. A. 10π cm²
   2. B. 25π cm²
   3. C. 50π cm²
   4. D. 100π cm²

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The handbook gives "A = πr2". The radius is 5 cm, so the area is π(5)² = 25π cm²; using the diameter as the radius gives 100π.

   Reference: DOE Fundamentals Handbook: Mathematics, Volume 2 of 2 — Module 3, p. 12, Plane Geometric Figures Summary

2. 2A closed system receives 80 kJ of heat and does 30 kJ of work on its surroundings. Its kinetic and potential energies do not change. What is its internal-energy change?

   1. A. A decrease of 110 kJ
   2. B. A decrease of 50 kJ
   3. C. An increase of 50 kJ
   4. D. An increase of 110 kJ

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The handbook states "all energies into the system are equal to all energies leaving the system plus the change in storage". Thus ΔU = 80 − 30 = 50 kJ; work done by the system is an energy outflow.

   Reference: DOE Fundamentals Handbook: Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer, and Fluid Flow, Volume 1 — Module 1, p. 54, First Law of Thermodynamics

3. 3A cost of $12,100 will be paid exactly two years from today. At an effective annual discount rate of 10%, what is its present value?

   1. A. $10,000
   2. B. $10,890
   3. C. $11,000
   4. D. $14,641

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NIST explains that the single present value factor "when multiplied by the future one-time amount, will yield the present value of that amount." Equation 3-5 gives PV = F/(1 + d)^t. Therefore PV = 12,100/(1.10)² = $10,000.

   Reference: NIST Handbook 135: Life Cycle Costing Manual for the Federal Energy Management Program — Sections 3.1.1 and 3.2.1, pp. 20 and 24, equation (3-5)

4. 4A bin contains 7 conforming parts and 3 nonconforming parts. One part is drawn so that each part has an equal chance of selection. What is the probability of selecting a nonconforming part?

   1. A. 0.70
   2. B. 0.43
   3. C. 0.30
   4. D. 0.21

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The handbook explains that probability is calculated from "the number of successes (s), and failures (f)". Here the event of interest has 3 favorable outcomes out of 10 equally likely selections, so P = 3/(3 + 7) = 0.30.

   Reference: DOE Fundamentals Handbook: Mathematics, Volume 2 of 2 — Module 5, p. 8, Probability

5. 5A production database declares part_id as a primary key. Which condition must the values in this key satisfy?

   1. A. They may repeat but must be non-null
   2. B. They must be unique but may include nulls
   3. C. They must be unique and non-null
   4. D. They must be stored in ascending numeric order

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The PostgreSQL documentation requires primary-key values to be "unique and not null". Uniqueness permits reliable row identification, and the key cannot be missing. Physical sorting is a separate concern.

   Reference: PostgreSQL 18 Documentation: Constraints — 5.5.4, Primary Keys

6. 6Which manufacturing approach builds a three-dimensional part by adding successive material layers according to a digital design?

   1. A. Additive manufacturing
   2. B. Subtractive machining
   3. C. Closed-die forging
   4. D. Permanent-mold casting

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NIST states, "Additive manufacturing (AM) uses digital designs to fabricate three-dimensional products that are built up layer by layer." Machining removes material, forging shapes a workpiece through deformation, and casting shapes material in a mold. The layer-by-layer addition identifies additive manufacturing.

   Reference: What is Additive Manufacturing? — Summary, opening paragraph

7. 7Two workstations are at coordinates (2, 3) m and (8, 11) m. Using rectilinear distance for travel along unobstructed perpendicular aisles, what is the shortest travel distance?

   1. A. 10 m
   2. B. 14 m
   3. C. 20 m
   4. D. 100 m

   Answer: B

   Explanation: NIST defines Manhattan distance as "The distance between two points measured along axes at right angles." The rectilinear distance is |8 − 2| + |11 − 3| = 6 + 8 = 14 m. The straight-line distance of 10 m does not follow the perpendicular-aisle metric.

   Reference: Dictionary of Algorithms and Data Structures: Manhattan Distance — Definition, two-dimensional formula

8. 8Across several operator screens, the same function uses the same label, position, and interaction pattern. What is the principal human-factors benefit of this consistency?

   1. A. It removes the need to provide task-relevant information
   2. B. It reduces learning demands and the likelihood of operating errors
   3. C. It requires operators to memorize more interface-specific rules
   4. D. It makes every function operate identically regardless of purpose

   Answer: B

   Explanation: NASA explains that consistent interfaces "require less crew training, and generally result in fewer operational errors and lower cognitive workload". Familiar patterns reduce the number of separate operating conventions to learn. Consistency does not eliminate information needs or require unrelated functions to behave identically.

   Reference: NASA-STD-3001 Volume 2: 10.0 Crew Interfaces — Section 10.1, Standardization & Consistency, opening paragraph

9. 9Which statement identifies the primary focus of quality assurance within quality management?

   1. A. Sorting finished units into conforming and nonconforming groups
   2. B. Providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled
   3. C. Measuring only the percentage of defects found at final inspection
   4. D. Replacing documented processes with final acceptance decisions

   Answer: B

   Explanation: ASQ defines QA as focused on "providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled". Planned and systematic quality-system activities support that confidence. Product sorting and final inspection are narrower control activities; final acceptance does not replace a quality system.

   Reference: Quality Assurance vs Quality Control — Differences between QA and QC—Quality Assurance

10. 10A conveyor requirement states that the system shall transfer items quickly. Which revision provides an objectively verifiable performance requirement?

    1. A. The conveyor shall transfer items at a satisfactory speed.
    2. B. The conveyor shall transfer items faster than operators expect.
    3. C. The conveyor shall transfer at least 40 items per minute under the specified rated load.
    4. D. The conveyor shall transfer items using the most practical operating speed.

    Answer: C

    Explanation: NASA states, "All requirements should be stated in a fashion and with enough information that it will be possible to verify the requirement after the end product is implemented." A numeric throughput and stated load provide a measurable acceptance criterion; satisfactory, expected, and practical speeds leave the criterion undefined.

    Reference: NASA Systems Engineering Handbook — Technical Requirements Definition — Section 4.2.1.2.4, Are the Requirements Verifiable?