Free Sport Pilot Glider Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Sport Pilot Glider practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1A sport pilot and one passenger will share $180 in glider rental and airport expenses for a recreational flight. What is the minimum amount the pilot must pay?

   1. A. $45
   2. B. $60
   3. C. $90
   4. D. $180

   Answer: C

   Explanation: Section 61.315(b) states, "You must pay at least half the operating expenses of the flight." Half of $180 is $90. Paying the entire amount is allowed, but it is not the minimum.

   Reference: 14 CFR Part 61 — Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors, and Ground Instructors — § 61.315(b)

2. 2A glider operator must classify injuries after a landing occurrence. Which fracture, by itself, meets the NTSB serious-injury definition rather than its simple-fracture exceptions?

   1. A. A simple fracture of a finger
   2. B. A simple fracture of the forearm
   3. C. A simple fracture of a toe
   4. D. A simple fracture of the nose

   Answer: B

   Explanation: Section 830.2 defines serious injury to include "a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose)". A simple forearm fracture is outside those exceptions and qualifies; the other three are expressly excepted.

   Reference: 49 CFR Part 830 — Notification and Reporting of Aircraft Accidents or Incidents — § 830.2, Serious injury definition, clause (2)

3. 3A radio-equipped glider is approaching an airport whose tower is closed. Which published frequency designation identifies the channel for airport traffic advisory broadcasts?

   1. A. ATIS
   2. B. ASOS
   3. C. AWOS
   4. D. CTAF

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The AIM defines a CTAF as "a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower." The other designations provide weather or terminal information rather than the traffic advisory channel.

   Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual — Chapter 4, Section 1: Services Available to Pilots — 4-1-9, Communicating on a Common Frequency

4. 4Before a glider launch, the pilot reads the METAR wind group 24012G20KT. What surface wind does it report?

   1. A. From 240° true at 12 knots, gusting to 20 knots.
   2. B. From 240° magnetic at 12 knots, gusting to 20 knots.
   3. C. Toward 240° true at 12 knots, gusting to 20 knots.
   4. D. From 240° true at 20 knots, gusting to 32 knots.

   Answer: A

   Explanation: The handbook states, "The first three digits indicate the direction the true wind is blowing from in tens of degrees. If the wind is variable, it is reported as “VRB.” The last two digits indicate the speed of the wind in knots unless the wind is greater than 99 knots, in which case it is indicated by three digits. If the winds are gusting, the letter “G” follows the wind speed (G26KT). After the letter “G,” the peak gust recorded is provided." Therefore 24012G20KT reports wind from 240° true at 12 knots, with a peak gust of 20 knots; G20 is not an increment to add to the steady speed.

   Reference: Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge — Chapter 13, p. 13-6, METAR, Wind

5. 5A glider pilot is developing a daytime visual traffic scan. Which eye-movement pattern is most effective for detecting traffic?

   1. A. A continuous rapid sweep from one wingtip to the other.
   2. B. A sustained forward stare with peripheral attention to both sides.
   3. C. Short movements of no more than 10°, pausing at least one second.
   4. D. Broad movements of about 45°, pausing only at the end of each sweep.

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The handbook states, "Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each should be observed for at least 1 second to enable detection." Small scanning segments permit successive areas to enter central vision instead of being blurred by a rapid sweep.

   Reference: Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge — Chapter 14, p. 14-28, Collision Avoidance

6. 6A glider pilot needs pressure altitude as an input to a takeoff-performance calculation. What altimeter setting permits a direct pressure-altitude reading?

   1. A. The current destination altimeter setting
   2. B. The current departure altimeter setting
   3. C. The setting that makes the field read zero
   4. D. The standard setting of 29.92 inches Hg

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The handbook gives this method: "Setting the barometric scale of the altimeter to 29.92 and reading the indicated altitude". Pressure altitude is the standard-pressure reference needed before correcting for temperature.

   Reference: Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge — Chapter 4, p. 4-4, Pressure Altitude

7. 7A glider's approved baggage station is 80 inches aft of datum. What moment does 15 pounds of baggage contribute to the loading calculation?

   1. A. 95 pound-inches
   2. B. 1,200 pound-inches
   3. C. 5.33 pound-inches
   4. D. 65 pound-inches

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The glider handbook gives "Weight × Arm = Moment." Multiplying 15 pounds by 80 inches gives 1,200 pound-inches. Adding, dividing, or subtracting the two inputs produces the other values, each using the wrong operation.

   Reference: Glider Flying Handbook — Chapter 5: Glider Performance — Chapter 5, p. 5-16, CG calculation formulas

8. 8A glider enters a steep pull-up above its published unaccelerated stall speed. Which angle must exceed its critical value for an aerodynamic stall to occur?

   1. A. Bank angle
   2. B. Flightpath angle
   3. C. Angle of attack
   4. D. Sideslip angle

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The handbook states, "A stall occurs whenever the angle between the chord line and relative wind exceeds the critical AOA." Airspeed or attitude alone does not prevent an accelerated stall.

   Reference: Glider Flying Handbook — Chapter 3: Aerodynamics of Flight — Chapter 3, p. 3-14, Stalls

9. 9A glider pilot feels obliged to complete a flight because friends have traveled far to watch it. Within the PAVE checklist, which risk category contains this influence?

   1. A. Pilot
   2. B. Aircraft
   3. C. External pressure
   4. D. Environment

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The handbook states, "Any external pressure to take a particular flight can create an additional hazard." The perceived obligation to please waiting friends is external pressure, separate from aircraft condition, weather, or the pilot's physical condition.

   Reference: Glider Flying Handbook — Chapter 13: Human Factors — Chapter 13, p. 13-12, Risk Management, PAVE

10. 10Before a glider cross-country flight, the pilot wants detailed published airport entries with runway facilities, services, frequencies, and operational remarks for intended stops. Which publication should the pilot consult?

    1. A. Aeronautical Information Manual
    2. B. Chart Supplement U.S.
    3. C. Glider Flying Handbook
    4. D. Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

    Answer: B

    Explanation: Under use of the Chart Supplement, the handbook identifies "location, elevation, runway and lighting facilities, available services". The detailed airport entries provide the specific planning information, while the other publications provide general operating knowledge.

    Reference: Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge — Chapter 16, p. 16-17, Use of Chart Supplement U.S.