Free Ground Instructor Instrument Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Ground Instructor Instrument practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1An airplane's IFR fuel plan includes flight to the destination and then to the required alternate. What is the minimum additional fuel endurance required at normal cruising speed?

   1. A. 20 minutes
   2. B. 30 minutes
   3. C. 45 minutes
   4. D. 60 minutes

   Answer: C

   Explanation: Section 91.167(a)(3) requires fuel to "Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed" for an airplane. The reserve follows the destination and required alternate legs.

   Reference: 14 CFR Part 91—General Operating and Flight Rules — § 91.167(a)(1)–(3)

2. 2On a night IFR arrival, a pilot uses a three-step radio-controlled runway-lighting system. Which microphone-keying input leaves the lights at their highest available intensity?

   1. A. Three clicks in a five-second group
   2. B. Five clicks in a five-second group
   3. C. Seven clicks in a five-second group
   4. D. Seven clicks, then three in a second five-second group

   Answer: C

   Explanation: AIM 2−1−8 specifies "7 times within 5 seconds" for the highest available intensity. It explains that a later selection of five or three clicks adjusts capable lights to a lower intensity. Thus the final three-click group in D reduces the setting selected by the first group.

   Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual—Basic with Changes 1, 2 and 3 — 2−1−8(c) and Table 2−1−3

3. 3Before an IFR departure from an airport without an operating control tower, ATC assigns a time beyond which the pilot must obtain a new departure release if still on the ground. What type of time restriction is this?

   1. A. Clearance void time
   2. B. Release time
   3. C. Expect departure clearance time
   4. D. Expect further clearance time

   Answer: A

   Explanation: AIM 5−2−7(a)(1) describes a clearance containing "a provision for the clearance to be void if not airborne by a specific time." Expiration of a clearance void time withdraws departure authority until a new acknowledged release. A release time specifies the earliest departure time; an expect departure clearance time assigns a runway release time in a traffic management program; an expect further clearance time anticipates further clearance. These are distinct from the stated airborne-by cutoff.

   Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual—Basic with Changes 1, 2 and 3 — 5−2−7(a)(1), Clearance Void Times and Note 2

4. 4Before using a VOR for IFR navigation, a pilot with a conventional audio-identification receiver wants positive identification of the station. Which item supplies that identification?

   1. A. The database's expected facility label
   2. B. A flight service specialist's voice transmission
   3. C. The controller's radar identification message
   4. D. The station's Morse-code identification

   Answer: D

   Explanation: AIM 1−1−3(c) identifies the positive methods as "its Morse Code identification or by the recorded automatic voice identification". With the stated receiver, listening to the station identifier verifies the actual signal rather than relying on a database label or unrelated voice traffic.

   Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual—Basic with Changes 1, 2 and 3 — 1−1−3(c)

5. 5On an FAA IFR en route chart, an airway altitude is printed as '*3400' below the MEA. Which charted altitude does the asterisk identify?

   1. A. Minimum reception altitude
   2. B. Minimum crossing altitude
   3. C. Maximum authorized altitude
   4. D. Minimum obstruction clearance altitude

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The Instrument Flying Handbook states that the MOCA is "indicated on AeroNav Products charts by a leading asterisk". Thus *3400 identifies the MOCA rather than the MRA, MCA, or MAA.

   Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook — Chapter 1, Charted IFR Altitudes, p. 1-6

6. 6An IFR pilot calls Flight Service for planning information well before departure. At what minimum lead time does the AIM recommend requesting an Outlook Briefing?

   1. A. Two hours before departure
   2. B. Four hours before departure
   3. C. Six hours before departure
   4. D. Twelve hours before departure

   Answer: C

   Explanation: AIM 7−1−5(d) says to request an Outlook Briefing when departure is "six or more hours from the time of the briefing." A Standard or Abbreviated Briefing is still needed nearer departure for current information.

   Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual—Basic with Changes 1, 2 and 3 — 7−1−5(d)

7. 7In IMC, an airplane's pitot ram-air opening becomes blocked while the pitot drain hole and static ports remain open. What indication should the pilot expect from the airspeed indicator?

   1. A. It freezes at the airspeed present when blockage occurred
   2. B. It increases with climb as though indicating altitude
   3. C. It decreases toward zero as pressure equalizes
   4. D. It continues indicating the correct airspeed

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The Instrument Flying Handbook explains that with the drain open, static pressure equalizes and "indicated airspeed slowly drops to zero." Trapping pitot pressure by blocking both inlet and drain produces the altitude-like response instead.

   Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook — Chapter 5, Blocked Pitot System, pp. 5-2–5-3

8. 8In subfreezing cloud, a pilot observes glossy translucent ice spreading rearward from the leading edge. Which freezing process explains this clear-ice hazard?

   1. A. Small droplets freeze immediately and trap many air bubbles
   2. B. Water vapor deposits directly as a crystalline surface coating
   3. C. Large droplets freeze slowly while unfrozen water spreads
   4. D. Alternating droplet populations form clear and opaque layers

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The Aviation Weather Handbook defines clear ice as formed by "the relatively slow freezing of large, supercooled water droplets." Water can spread before freezing, unlike the immediate freezing that traps air in rime ice or the layered structure of mixed ice.

   Reference: Aviation Weather Handbook — § 20.3.2, Clear Icing, p. 20-2

9. 9An instrument pilot is considering lowering personal weather minimums after gaining experience. When should that change be evaluated?

   1. A. During an unhurried review of recent skill and comfort
   2. B. During the arrival briefing for a below-personal-minimums destination
   3. C. During a passenger request to avoid an overnight delay
   4. D. During the final approach when the runway first becomes visible

   Answer: A

   Explanation: The Risk Management Handbook says adjustments belong when "time and objectivity permits an honest self-analysis about skill, performance, and comfort level during the last few flights." They should not be made under pressure to complete a particular flight.

   Reference: Risk Management Handbook — Chapter 2, Step 5—Adjust for Specific Conditions, caution 1, p. 2-5

10. 10During instrument training, the learner offers the flight controls back to the instructor. Until what event should the learner keep flying the aircraft?

    1. A. The instructor first places a hand near the control yoke
    2. B. The learner announces the intention to transfer control
    3. C. The instructor says that the instructor has the flight controls
    4. D. The instructor gives a nod acknowledging the offered controls

    Answer: C

    Explanation: The Aviation Instructor’s Handbook says the learner should "keep flying the aircraft until the instructor says, “I have the flight controls.”" This explicit acceptance prevents an unrecognized gap in aircraft control during the exchange.

    Reference: Aviation Instructor’s Handbook—Chapter 9: Techniques of Flight Instruction — Chapter 9, Positive Exchange of Flight Controls, Figure 9-8, p. 9-9