Free Flight Instructor Instrument Airplane Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Flight Instructor Instrument Airplane practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1For a civil airplane IFR flight under Part 91, the forecast requires an alternate. Fuel consumption is constant at normal cruising speed. The destination requires 60 minutes of flight and the alternate another 30 minutes. What is the minimum total fuel endurance required?

   1. A. 90 minutes
   2. B. 105 minutes
   3. C. 135 minutes
   4. D. 75 minutes

   Answer: C

   Explanation: Section 91.167 requires fuel to the destination and alternate, then to "Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed". Thus 60 + 30 + 45 = 135 minutes. The alternatives omit the reserve, omit the alternate leg, or count only the alternate leg plus reserve.

   Reference: 14 CFR Part 91—General Operating and Flight Rules — § 91.167(a)(1)–(3)

2. 2An IFR pilot reports minimum fuel but has not declared an emergency. According to the AIM, what does that report communicate?

   1. A. It declares distress requiring immediate assistance and emergency handling.
   2. B. It declares an urgency affecting safety without requiring immediate assistance.
   3. C. It reports the remaining fuel endurance as a numerical time value in minutes.
   4. D. It advises of little or no arrival delay tolerance without requesting traffic priority.

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The AIM states, "Be aware a minimum fuel advisory does not imply a need for traffic priority." It advises that undue delay cannot be accepted. Distress and urgency declarations convey different levels of emergency; a numerical fuel-remaining report supplies endurance rather than the minimum-fuel advisory itself.

   Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual—Basic with Changes 1, 2, and 3 — Minimum Fuel Advisory, Pilot, fourth item

3. 3A pilot remains on the ground at a nontowered airport after the IFR clearance void time expires. What is the effect on departure authority?

   1. A. The flight plan is canceled and must be filed again from the beginning.
   2. B. IFR departure authority resumes when ATC receives the pilot's delay report.
   3. C. IFR departure authority is withdrawn until a new release is issued and acknowledged.
   4. D. IFR departure remains authorized during the interval allotted for notifying ATC.

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The AIM states, "It withdraws the pilot’s authority to depart IFR until a new departure release/release time has been issued by ATC and is acknowledged by the pilot." The flight plan and departure clearance are not canceled. A delay report fulfills a notification duty but does not itself supply a new release; the notification interval does not extend departure authority.

   Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual—Basic with Changes 1, 2, and 3 — Departure Restrictions, Clearance Void Times, Hold for Release, and Release Times, Clearance Void Times, second note

4. 4While navigating near a DME station at a high altitude, a pilot notices that the DME distance exceeds the map's horizontal distance to the station. Which distance does the DME measure?

   1. A. Horizontal distance along the earth's surface
   2. B. Slant-range distance between aircraft and station
   3. C. Along-track distance remaining on the active route
   4. D. Ground distance projected along the selected radial

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The AIM states, "Distance information received from DME equipment is SLANT RANGE distance and not actual horizontal distance." The vertical separation contributes to the range, explaining the discrepancy near the station.

   Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual—Basic with Changes 1, 2, and 3 — Distance Measuring Equipment (DME), paragraph b

5. 5In the profile view of a U.S. Government instrument approach chart, a crossing altitude of 3,000 feet is underscored but has no overscore. How should that altitude be interpreted?

   1. A. Cross at exactly 3,000 feet.
   2. B. Cross at or below 3,000 feet.
   3. C. Use 3,000 feet as a planning recommendation.
   4. D. Cross at or above 3,000 feet.

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The AIM states, "Minimum altitude will be depicted with the altitude value underscored." It requires maintaining at or above that value. An overscore denotes maximum, both lines denote mandatory, and no line denotes recommended altitude.

   Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual—Basic with Changes 1, 2, and 3 — Instrument Approach Procedure Charts, paragraph b, altitude-depiction items

6. 6During evening IFR planning, successive surface observations show temperature falling toward a nearly constant dewpoint. What trend does the narrowing temperature-dewpoint spread indicate?

   1. A. Decreasing relative humidity as the air approaches saturation
   2. B. Increasing relative humidity as the air approaches saturation
   3. C. Increasing relative humidity as the air moves away from saturation
   4. D. Decreasing relative humidity as the air moves away from saturation

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The handbook states, "As the spread decreases, relative humidity increases." A zero spread corresponds to saturation. This trend helps anticipate fog but does not by itself establish precipitation through a deep layer.

   Reference: Aviation Weather Handbook (FAA-H-8083-28B) — § 6.6, Temperature-Dewpoint Spread, p. 6-4

7. 7During an instrument climb, the static ports become completely blocked and no alternate source is selected. What happens to the conventional altimeter indication as the airplane continues climbing?

   1. A. It continues increasing at the true climb rate.
   2. B. It decreases as outside static pressure falls.
   3. C. It resets to the pressure altitude for the current level.
   4. D. It remains at the altitude indicated when blockage occurred.

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The handbook states, "Trapped static pressure causes the altimeter to freeze at the altitude where the blockage occurred." Without a changing static input, the altimeter cannot follow the climb or reset to the current pressure altitude.

   Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge—Chapter 8: Flight Instruments — Blocked Static System, p. 8-11

8. 8Near an instrument approach path, an intense localized downdraft reaches the ground and spreads outward from its center, producing hazardous low-level wind shear. Which phenomenon does this describe?

   1. A. Gust front
   2. B. Mountain wave
   3. C. Microburst
   4. D. Sea-breeze front

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The handbook defines a microburst as "a small-scale, intense downdraft" that spreads outward upon reaching the surface. A gust front is the leading edge of broader thunderstorm outflow; mountain waves and sea-breeze fronts have different generating mechanisms.

   Reference: Aviation Weather Handbook (FAA-H-8083-28B) — § 22.7.3, Downburst and Microburst, p. 22-8

9. 9An instructor identifies icing along an IFR route as a hazard. What describes the associated risk, rather than the hazardous condition itself?

   1. A. The charted position and geographic extent of the icing area
   2. B. The probability and predicted severity of an adverse outcome from the icing
   3. C. The aircraft equipment and pilot qualifications available for the flight
   4. D. The forecast issue time and observation interval used to locate the icing

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The handbook defines risk as "the composite of predicted severity and likelihood of the potential effect of a hazard." Geography, equipment, and report timing can inform an assessment but do not themselves define risk.

   Reference: Risk Management Handbook (FAA-H-8083-2A) — Chapter 3, Identifying Hazards & Associated Risks, Introduction, p. 3-1

10. 10During a two-pilot instrument approach, one pilot controls the aircraft's flight path. The other cross-checks the flight path and systems and performs assigned communication and checklist tasks. Which operational role describes the second pilot?

    1. A. Pilot monitoring
    2. B. Pilot flying
    3. C. Flight engineer
    4. D. Relief pilot

    Answer: A

    Explanation: The handbook describes the division in which "the second pilot monitors the flight and accomplishes other tasks." AC 120-51E explains that previous references to pilot-not-flying were changed to "pilot monitoring (PM)". The duties define the PM role, rather than PF, a flight-engineer position, or a relief assignment.

    Reference: Risk Management Handbook (FAA-H-8083-2A) — Chapter 6, Teamwork, p. 6-4