Free Registered Cardiovascular Invasive Specialist (RCIS) examination Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Registered Cardiovascular Invasive Specialist (RCIS) examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1When preparing a room for central venous catheter insertion, which draping supply is part of maximal sterile barrier precautions?

   1. A. A sterile full body drape
   2. B. A sterile small field drape
   3. C. A clean full body sheet
   4. D. A clean small field drape

   Answer: A

   Explanation: CDC specifies "a sterile full body drape" as part of maximal sterile barrier precautions for CVC insertion. A smaller or merely clean drape does not meet that stated preparation.

   Reference: Summary of Recommendations: Intravascular Catheter-Related Infections — Maximal Sterile Barrier Precautions, recommendation 1

2. 2During moderate sedation in a cath lab, which monitor directly tracks end-tidal carbon dioxide to assess ventilation?

   1. A. Capnography
   2. B. Pulse oximetry
   3. C. Electrocardiography
   4. D. Noninvasive blood pressure

   Answer: A

   Explanation: SCAI states "The ASA recommends use of end-tidal CO2 monitoring via capnography." The other monitors assess oxygenation, cardiac electrical activity, or blood pressure rather than expired carbon dioxide.

   Reference: SCAI Moderate Sedation Practices for Adult Patients in the Cardiac Catheterization Laboratory — Patient monitoring during sedation, paragraph b

3. 3A permanent pacemaker is being implanted for a patient whose heart rate is too slow. What is its intended primary function?

   1. A. Deliver electrical impulses to regulate the heartbeat
   2. B. Record coronary artery pressure continuously
   3. C. Remove thrombus from a coronary artery
   4. D. Measure oxygen saturation in the atrium

   Answer: A

   Explanation: The AHA describes pacemaker function: "It produces electrical impulses to help control abnormal heartbeats."

   Reference: Pacemaker — What is a pacemaker?

4. 4A patient has a diagnostic prehospital ECG confirming STEMI and needs no further stabilization. Once cath lab staff are ready, which pathway best expedites reperfusion?

   1. A. Proceed directly to the cath lab
   2. B. Obtain a routine repeat ECG in the ED first
   3. C. Wait for troponin confirmation before lab transfer
   4. D. Schedule outpatient coronary angiography

   Answer: A

   Explanation: Direct lab transport is indicated with confirmed STEMI and no barrier to emergent revascularization. "Once a STEMI is confirmed on the initial ECG and there are no circumstances precluding emergent revascularization, the patient should be directly transported to the CCL."

   Reference: SCAI Expert Consensus Statement on STEMI Primary PCI — CCL Team Readiness

5. 5After transradial catheterization, what is the goal of patent hemostasis at the wrist?

   1. A. Stop bleeding while preserving antegrade radial flow
   2. B. Stop bleeding by completely occluding both radial and ulnar arteries
   3. C. Maintain unrestricted bleeding until the sheath is removed
   4. D. Replace compression with routine coronary stenting

   Answer: A

   Explanation: Patent hemostasis balances bleeding control with continued radial flow. "Preservation of antegrade arterial flow while maintaining hemostasis lowers the incidence of early occlusion"

   Reference: Radial Artery Occlusion After Transradial Cardiac Catheterization: Tips on Prevention and Management — Nonpharmacologic Strategies, Use the patent hemostasis technique

6. 6Which sterile supply should be available to protect a pulmonary artery catheter during insertion?

   1. A. A sterile sleeve
   2. B. A sterile gauze pad
   3. C. A sterile closure plug
   4. D. A sterile adhesive dressing

   Answer: A

   Explanation: CDC directs staff to "Use a sterile sleeve to protect pulmonary artery catheters during insertion." Gauze, a plug, and a dressing serve different roles and do not provide the specified catheter sleeve.

   Reference: Summary of Recommendations: Intravascular Catheter-Related Infections — Maximal Sterile Barrier Precautions, recommendation 2

7. 7Which monitoring domain is most directly assessed by pulse oximetry during cath lab sedation?

   1. A. Oxygenation
   2. B. Ventilation
   3. C. Electrical rhythm
   4. D. Arterial pressure

   Answer: A

   Explanation: SCAI names "Non-invasive hemodynamic and oximetric monitoring to all patients" in room preparation and identifies oxygenation as a separate sedation monitoring domain. Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation rather than ventilation, rhythm, or blood pressure.

   Reference: SCAI Expert Consensus Update on Best Practices in the Cardiac Catheterization Laboratory: Combined Slide Set — Patient Preparation in the Procedure Room

8. 8Which implanted device is designed to deliver a defibrillation shock when a fast or chaotic rhythm is detected?

   1. A. Implantable loop recorder
   2. B. Cardiac resynchronization pacemaker
   3. C. Implantable cardioverter defibrillator
   4. D. Leadless single-chamber pacemaker

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The AHA attributes this action to an ICD: "When your heartbeat is too fast or chaotic, it gives defibrillation shocks to stop the abnormal rhythm."

   Reference: Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator (ICD) — How does an ICD work?

9. 9In acute myocardial infarction, what defines cardiogenic shock?

   1. A. Inadequate cardiac output to meet tissue metabolic demand
   2. B. Isolated low oxygen saturation despite preserved perfusion
   3. C. Ventricular fibrillation without spontaneous circulation
   4. D. Coronary narrowing without impaired systemic perfusion

   Answer: A

   Explanation: Cardiogenic shock is pump failure with inadequate effective output. "Cardiogenic shock (CS) is the most common cause of mortality in patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI), is the inability of the heart to maintain effective cardiac output to meet metabolic demands of the body as a result of underlying cardiac pathology."

   Reference: Invasive Management of Acute Myocardial Infarction Complicated by Cardiogenic Shock: Top Things to Know — Top Things to Know, item 1

10. 10After removal of a femoral arterial sheath, where should manual pressure be directed for access-site bleeding?

    1. A. Proximal to the puncture so the artery compresses against the femoral head
    2. B. Distal to the puncture so the vein compresses against the tibia
    3. C. Over the contralateral groin to reduce systemic pressure
    4. D. Over the abdomen without compressing the access artery

    Answer: A

    Explanation: The pressure point compresses the femoral artery against the femoral head. "If the sheath has been removed, ensure manual pressure is applied proximal to the puncture site such that the artery is compressed against the femoral head."

    Reference: Quality Initiatives to Prevent and Manage Major Femoral Access-Site Bleeding — Management of Major Femoral Bleeding, Large Groin Hematomas