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Free CFPN® Exam Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the CFPN® Exam practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1Before a patient enters the operating room, a nurse compares the wristband with the procedure record. Which pair can reliably identify the patient?

    1. A. Patient name and assigned medical record number
    2. B. Patient name and current hospital room number
    3. C. Assigned medical record number and bed number
    4. D. Current hospital room number and bed number

    Answer: A

    Explanation: The Joint Commission lists "the individual's name, an assigned identification number" as acceptable identifiers and states that a room number is not a unique patient identifier. Thus the name and medical record number are the qualifying pair.

    Reference: Two Patient Identifiers - Understanding The Requirements — Intent, patient identifier definition

  2. 2A perioperative nurse has assessed a patient's limited mobility and identified risk for postoperative immobility. Which nursing process activity establishes a measurable target for the care plan?

    1. A. Outcomes identification
    2. B. Patient assessment
    3. C. Nursing diagnosis
    4. D. Intervention evaluation

    Answer: A

    Explanation: ANA says, "Based on the assessment and diagnosis, the nurse sets measurable and achievable short- and long-range goals for this patient" under Outcomes / Planning. Setting the target is outcomes identification.

    Reference: The Nursing Process — Outcomes / Planning

  3. 3The sterile supplies for one surgical patient are ready for setup. According to AORN, what is the maximum number of sterile fields that should be open for that patient at one time?

    1. A. One sterile field
    2. B. Two sterile fields
    3. C. Three sterile fields
    4. D. Four sterile fields

    Answer: A

    Explanation: AORN states, "Only one sterile field should be open per patient (3.4), and all sterile supplies should be handled by a scrubbed team member using aseptic technique." Thus the limit for this patient is one.

    Reference: Sterile Technique: Definition, Field Rules, & More — Only one sterile field per patient (3.4)

  4. 4A circulating nurse repeats a spoken medication order to the prescriber and waits for confirmation. Which TeamSTEPPS communication tool is the nurse using?

    1. A. Call-Out
    2. B. Check-Back
    3. C. Teach-Back
    4. D. Handoff

    Answer: B

    Explanation: AHRQ defines Check-Back as "A closed-loop communication strategy used to ensure that information shared by one team member is correctly understood by another team member." Repeating the order for confirmation serves that purpose.

    Reference: AHRQ TeamSTEPPS Communication Module Overview — Communication Tools—Check-Back

  5. 5A reusable instrument arrives for reprocessing with visible tissue residue. Which step must precede high-level disinfection or sterilization?

    1. A. Mechanical indicator review
    2. B. Detergent or enzymatic cleaning
    3. C. Chemical indicator placement
    4. D. Sterile storage labeling

    Answer: B

    Explanation: CDC directs personnel to "Meticulously clean patient-care items with water and detergent, or with water and enzymatic cleaners before high-level disinfection or sterilization procedures." The visible residue makes cleaning necessary before either terminal process.

    Reference: CDC Recommendations for Disinfection and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities — Cleaning of Patient-Care Devices, recommendation 2.b

  6. 6During general anesthesia, the team suspects malignant hyperthermia. Which anesthetic exposures should the perioperative nurse help the team stop immediately?

    1. A. Volatile agents and succinylcholine
    2. B. Intravenous sedatives and opioids
    3. C. Nondepolarizing blockers and opioids
    4. D. Intravenous anesthetics and local anesthetics

    Answer: A

    Explanation: MHAUS directs the team to "Discontinue volatile agents and succinylcholine." These are the triggering exposures named for immediate discontinuation.

    Reference: MHAUS Managing a Crisis: Emergency Treatment for an Acute MH Event — Emergency Treatment for An Acute MH Event, initial actions

  7. 7A perioperative RN realizes that fatigue is affecting safe performance of a task already underway. Which immediate step best addresses the impairment before continuing patient care?

    1. A. Request qualified assistance for the unsafe task
    2. B. Document the fatigue in a staffing report
    3. C. Arrange an occupational-health evaluation
    4. D. Schedule a peer debrief of the case

    Answer: A

    Explanation: ANA states, "Care ought to be taken in identifying any impairment in one’s own practice and in seeking immediate assistance." Seeking qualified help for the task protects the patient now; the other legitimate follow-up activities do not supply immediate clinical help.

    Reference: ANA 2025 Code of Ethics for Nurses Errata Sheet — 2025 Code of Ethics errata, page 12 paragraph 2 line 12

  8. 8A scheduled procedure conflicts with the signed consent before the patient enters the operating room. In which perioperative verification phase should the discrepancy be resolved?

    1. A. Preprocedure verification
    2. B. Procedure-site marking
    3. C. Immediately preincision time-out
    4. D. Postprocedure debrief

    Answer: A

    Explanation: The Universal Protocol places the direction to "Address missing information or discrepancies before starting the procedure" in preprocedure verification. The nurse should reconcile this conflict in that phase before the case proceeds.

    Reference: The Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery — Conduct a pre-procedure verification process

  9. 9A patient reports that anxiety about surgery is preventing sleep. When the nurse identifies anxiety as a response that needs nursing care, which part of the nursing process is being performed?

    1. A. Nursing diagnosis
    2. B. Patient assessment
    3. C. Outcomes identification
    4. D. Nursing implementation

    Answer: A

    Explanation: ANA states, "The nursing diagnosis is the nurse’s clinical judgment about the client’s response to actual or potential health conditions or needs." Identifying the patient's anxiety as the response requiring care is that judgment.

    Reference: The Nursing Process — Diagnosis

  10. 10A scrubbed team member has just donned sterile gloves for an operation. Which AORN glove-integrity step is due at this point?

    1. A. Inspect the gloves for integrity
    2. B. Perform surgical hand antisepsis
    3. C. Change the gloves using sterile technique
    4. D. Remove the gloves for hand hygiene

    Answer: A

    Explanation: AORN states, "Gloves should be inspected for integrity immediately after donning and throughout use (2.5)." The immediate post-donning step is inspection; hand antisepsis precedes gowning and gloving, while sterile glove change follows contamination.

    Reference: Sterile Technique: Definition, Field Rules, & More — How Do You Achieve Sterile Gowning and Gloving? (2.5)

Topics in this practice bank

These topics describe the available practice for CFPN® Exam. Review the examination outline and its sources for scope and allocation details.

  • Pre/postoperative Patient Assessment and Diagnosis
  • Individualized Plan of Care Development and Expected Outcome Identification
  • Management of Intraoperative Activities
    • Patient care and safety
    • Management of Personnel, Services and Materials
  • Communication and Documentation
  • Infection Prevention and Control of Environment, Instrumentation and Supplies
  • Emergency Situations
  • Professional Accountabilities

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These are independent study questions, not actual examination items. For examination requirements and official information, view CFPN® Exam details.