Free Certified Emergency Nurse Exam Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Certified Emergency Nurse Exam practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1Which set of conditions is included in acute coronary syndrome?

   1. A. Stable angina, myocarditis, and pericarditis
   2. B. Unstable angina, NSTEMI, and STEMI
   3. C. Aortic aneurysm, dissection, and rupture
   4. D. Heart failure, tamponade, and cardiogenic shock

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The guideline states, "The guideline focuses on the management of unstable angina and myocardial infarction – both non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) and ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)." These are the specified ACS conditions; the other groups are distinct cardiovascular problems.

   Reference: ACC, AHA Issue New Acute Coronary Syndromes Guideline — guideline announcement, ACS scope

2. 2In a patient with pneumonia, what process defines aspiration pneumonia?

   1. A. Inhaling material from the mouth or throat into the airways or lungs
   2. B. Inhaling only airborne bacteria from another person
   3. C. Fluid leaking into airways from the pleural space
   4. D. Blood clots traveling from the leg into lung arteries

   Answer: A

   Explanation: MedlinePlus states, "Aspiration pneumonia occurs when food, liquid, or other material from the mouth, nose, or throat is breathed into the airways or lungs, instead of being swallowed." The other paths describe infection transmission, effusion, or embolism.

   Reference: Aspiration pneumonia — Aspiration pneumonia, introduction

3. 3In Guillain-Barré syndrome, which part of the nervous system is attacked by the immune system?

   1. A. Peripheral nerves
   2. B. Cerebral cortex
   3. C. Meningeal coverings
   4. D. Pituitary gland

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NINDS states, "Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) ... is a rare neurological disorder in which a person’s immune system mistakenly attacks part of their peripheral nervous system". The other structures are not the primary target described.

   Reference: Guillain-Barré Syndrome — What is Guillain-Barré syndrome?

4. 4Which change in abdominal pain location is characteristic of evolving appendicitis?

   1. A. From the right upper abdomen to the left flank
   2. B. From around the umbilicus to the right lower abdomen
   3. C. From the left lower abdomen to the right shoulder
   4. D. From the epigastrium to the left shoulder

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The source states, "The pain tends to move into the right lower part of your belly." It begins around the belly button or mid upper abdomen, so B gives the cited progression.

   Reference: Appendicitis - MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia — Symptoms

5. 5In an adult with a urinary tract infection, which new symptom raises concern that infection involves the kidney rather than only the bladder?

   1. A. Back or side pain with chills
   2. B. Mild urinary frequency alone
   3. C. Burning only at the end of urination
   4. D. Suprapubic discomfort alone

   Answer: A

   Explanation: The source identifies possible kidney infection signs as "Back or side pain" and "Chills". Together they suggest upper urinary tract involvement more strongly than isolated bladder symptoms.

   Reference: Urinary tract infection - adults - MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia — When to Contact a Medical Professional

6. 6After a vaccine, an adult rapidly develops wheezing and hypotension but has no rash. How should the absence of skin findings affect suspicion for anaphylaxis?

   1. A. Anaphylaxis remains possible despite absent skin findings
   2. B. Anaphylaxis is excluded without urticaria
   3. C. Only a local injection reaction is possible
   4. D. Hypotension rules out an allergic reaction

   Answer: A

   Explanation: "However, 10 to 20% of patients have no skin findings." CDC notes that some anaphylaxis cases lack skin signs; respiratory distress and hypotension remain danger signs.

   Reference: Preventing and Managing Adverse Reactions - CDC — Table 5-2, Diagnosis

7. 7How should a severed part be packaged while an amputation patient is transported for possible reattachment?

   1. A. Place it directly in an ice bath.
   2. B. Wrap it in a clean damp cloth, seal it in a bag, and place the bag in an ice water bath.
   3. C. Immerse it in water without a bag.
   4. D. Keep it dry and at room temperature.

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The source says, "Wrap the severed part in a clean, damp cloth, place it in a sealed plastic bag and place the bag in an ice water bath." The selected sequence preserves tissue without direct ice or water contact.

   Reference: Amputation: MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia — First Aid

8. 8A patient with facial nerve palsy cannot close one eye. Which measure directly protects the exposed eye surface from drying?

   1. A. Use topical antibiotic as the sole moisture treatment
   2. B. Provide lubricating eye drops or ointment
   3. C. Use only a warm compress on the closed eyelid
   4. D. Provide oral analgesia without ocular care

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The source says, "Your provider may give you lubricating eye drops or eye ointments to keep the surface of the eye moist if you can't close it completely." Lubrication addresses exposure-related drying.

   Reference: Bell palsy: MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia — Treatment

9. 9For an uncomplicated minor thermal burn with intact skin, what cooling method is recommended?

   1. A. Apply ice directly to the burn.
   2. B. Immerse the burn in ice water.
   3. C. Run cool water over the burned area.
   4. D. Cover the burn before any cooling.

   Answer: C

   Explanation: The source advises, "Run cool water over the area of the burn or soak it in a cool water bath (not ice water)." Cool water is appropriate; ice water is not.

   Reference: Burns: MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia — First Aid, Minor Burns

10. 10In an emergency department using the Emergency Severity Index, which patient fits ESI level 1?

    1. A. A stable patient needing two diagnostic tests.
    2. B. A high-risk patient without immediate intervention needs.
    3. C. A patient needing immediate life-saving intervention.
    4. D. A patient with a minor complaint needing no resources.

    Answer: C

    Explanation: AHRQ explains, "Patients categorized as ESI-1 comprise <1% of patients but require immediate life-saving interventions such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation, defibrillation, or airway management." Immediate life-saving need defines this level.

    Reference: Some Patients Can't Wait: Improving Timeliness of Emergency Department Care — Triage overview