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Free CISI Global Securities Operations Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the CISI Global Securities Operations practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1Which investor is an institution rather than an individual investing personally?

    1. A.An employee buying shares in a personal trading account
    2. B.A company pension plan investing assets for its membersCorrect answer: B
    3. C.A retiree purchasing bonds with personal savings
    4. D.A student holding fund units in a personal account

    Explanation: The source states: "Institutional investors include company pension plans". A pension plan is an institutional investor. The other choices describe natural persons investing their own assets; buying fund units does not turn a person into an institution.

    Reference: OCC Comptroller’s Handbook: Investment Management Services — Investment Clients — Institutional Investors, p. 7

  2. 2Which comparison helps a custodian detect a disagreement in trade details before affirming settlement instructions?

    1. A.The agreed custody fee schedule against the invoice for custody services
    2. B.The announced dividend per share against the amount of income received
    3. C.The broker-side trade confirmation against the client's trade instructionsCorrect answer: C
    4. D.The depository's settled holdings against the internal securities ledger

    Explanation: The source states: "matches the information to instructions for the trade received from its customer.". Before affirmation, the two sides' versions of the trade must agree. Invoice verification, income reconciliation and holdings reconciliation are valid controls, but do not compare broker and client trade details for affirmation.

    Reference: OCC Comptroller’s Handbook: Custody Services — Trade Affirmation/Confirmation, p. 18

  3. 3Which arrangement best implements dual control over movements of assets held in custody?

    1. A.One officer initiates and approves transfers using separate passwords
    2. B.One officer completes transfers and reports monthly totals to management
    3. C.Separate authorised officers must initiate and approve each transferCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Separate officers process different clients but approve their own transfers

    Explanation: The source states: "Dual control procedures should ensure that one person, acting alone, does not have the ability to complete all phases of a transaction, or move custody assets.". Separate initiators and approvers prevent a single person from completing the transfer alone. Two passwords, later aggregate reporting, or dividing clients while retaining self-approval do not provide that control.

    Reference: OCC Comptroller’s Handbook: Custody Services — p. 6, Dual Control

  4. 4A UK individual receives ordinary cash dividends outside an ISA, exceeding all available personal and dividend allowances. Which factor determines the applicable dividend tax rate under the published 2026–27 rules?

    1. A.The number of days since the shares were purchased
    2. B.The individual's applicable Income Tax bandCorrect answer: B
    3. C.The exchange on which the shares were originally listed
    4. D.The nominal value printed on the share certificate

    Explanation: The source states: "How much tax you pay on dividends above the dividend allowance depends on your Income Tax band.". The published rules use the individual's Income Tax band for dividend income above allowances. Holding period, exchange listing and nominal value do not determine that band-dependent rate.

    Reference: HMRC: Tax on dividends — How much tax you pay, 2026–27 table introduction

  5. 5A custodian's processing system duplicates a corporate-action instruction because of a software error. Which risk category most directly describes the cause?

    1. A.Issuer credit risk
    2. B.Market price risk
    3. C.Operational riskCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Political risk

    Explanation: The source states: "Transaction risk is also referred to as operational risk.". The source links transaction processing, computing systems and errors to operational risk. The cause is a processing failure, not issuer default, changing market prices, or political intervention.

    Reference: OCC Comptroller’s Handbook: Custody Services — p. 3, Transaction Risk

  6. 6An investor grants an investment manager discretion within an agreed investment policy. What does that authority ordinarily permit?

    1. A.Changing the policy without regard to the client's mandate
    2. B.Transferring the client's beneficial ownership to the manager
    3. C.Choosing purchases and sales within the agreed guidelinesCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Requiring the client to approve every routine purchase first

    Explanation: The source states: "The bank’s investment authority is usually subject to investment policy guidelines established in the investment agency contract.". Discretion permits investment decisions within the mandate. It does not remove policy limits, transfer beneficial ownership, or make every routine decision subject to prior consent.

    Reference: OCC Comptroller’s Handbook: Investment Management Services — Investment Agency Accounts, p. 4

  7. 7What information does the Place of Settlement (PSET) field identify in post-trade processing?

    1. A.The location where the securities transaction will settleCorrect answer: A
    2. B.The date on which the parties intend the transaction to settle
    3. C.The identifier of the security to be delivered at settlement
    4. D.The cash consideration to be exchanged against the securities

    Explanation: The source states: "identifies the location where a transaction will be settled". PSET specifies the settlement location. Intended settlement date, security identifier and cash consideration are other trade details, not the place-of-settlement field.

    Reference: DTCC Learning: CTM — Place of Settlement Field (PSET)

  8. 8A UK firm holds a client's payment mandate subject to CASS 8. The client permits instructions only to a named bank account. What must the firm's mandate controls ensure?

    1. A.Instructions comply with the client's restriction on the receiving accountCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Instructions may use any account if the amount is below the mandate limit
    3. C.Instructions comply with the restriction only when the client repeats it
    4. D.Instructions may use another account if reconciled by the next business day

    Explanation: The source states: "in accordance with any conditions placed by the client". The named receiving account is a condition on use of the mandate. A low amount, absence of a repeated instruction, or later reconciliation does not authorise a payment outside it.

    Reference: FCA Handbook: CASS 8.3 Records and internal controls — CASS 8.3, rule 2, paragraph (3)

  9. 9For a US individual subject to the ordinary rules described in IRS Topic 403, how is interest on US Treasury bills, notes and bonds treated?

    1. A.Exempt from federal tax but taxable by states and localities
    2. B.Exempt from both federal and all state and local income taxes
    3. C.Taxable federally and by every state and locality without exception
    4. D.Subject to federal income tax but exempt from state and local income taxesCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The source states: "This interest is subject to federal income tax but is exempt from all state and local income taxes.". The exemption applies at state and local level, not federal level. The alternatives reverse it, extend it to federal tax, or remove it from state and local taxes.

    Reference: IRS Topic 403: Interest received — Types of interest, Treasury bills, notes and bonds

  10. 10A client fails to repay a settlement advance made by its custodian. Which risk most directly materialises for the custodian?

    1. A.Credit risk from the client's failure to performCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Market risk from a movement in quoted security prices
    3. C.Political risk from a change in government policy
    4. D.Operational risk from an incorrectly entered trade

    Explanation: The source states: "a custodian may be exposed to credit risk if it advances funds to settle trades for a customer.". The advance exposes the custodian to the client's nonpayment. The scenario does not attribute the loss to price changes, government action, or trade-entry error.

    Reference: OCC Comptroller’s Handbook: Custody Services — p. 4, Credit Risk

Exam Review

About CISI Global Securities Operations

CISI Global Securities Operations · GB

Key exam facts

Provider
The Chartered Institute for Securities & Investment (CISI) is the examining body and syllabus owner; this is an independently assessed IOC technical unit.
Format
Computer-based multiple-choice examination, available on demand at CISI test centres. The IOC page also advertises remote invigilation. Standard paper has 50 questions; up to 10% additional unidentified unscored trial questions may be included.
Exam questions
Total questions: 50.
Time limit
1 hour for the standard 50-question paper; proportionately more time is provided if additional trial questions are included.
Passing score
70% (35 of 50). Pass: 35–45 marks; pass with merit: 46–50; fail: 0–34. The published 63% pass rate is not the passing threshold.
Exam fee
UK price list valid 1 April 2026–31 March 2027: GBP £155 examination fee; mandatory workbook £105 where available. A one-off £68 Qualification Registration Fee applies when registering a first qualification with CISI. Saver package £275 includes examination, workbook and Revision Express. These are UK prices, not international or total IOC qualification fees.

Topics covered

  • Main Industry Participants (26%)

    • Investors and Custody Service Suppliers
    • know the characteristics of the following types of participant:
    • understand the advantages, disadvantages and purposes of the following types of custodian:
    • understand the purpose and provisions of custody and sub-custody agreements
    • understand the purpose of a Request For Proposal (RFP) in the selection of a global custodian by an investor
    • understand the requirements of a Service Level Agreement (SLA) between an investor and its custodian
    • understand how legislation can affect the appointment of custodians
    • International Central Securities Depositories and Central Securities Depositories
    • Know CSD and ICSD roles, available depositories and participation requirements
    • know how securities and cash are held by ICSDs and CSDs
    • know the concepts of certified, immobilised and dematerialised securities
    • know the roles played by Euroclear Bank and Clearstream Banking, including the Bridge
    • know the range of custody and settlement services offered by ICSDs
    • know the communication methods used with Euroclear Bank and Clearstream Banking
    • understand the impact of the Giovannini Barriers to the creation of a harmonised market for Europe
    • know the purpose and functions of TARGET2-Securities (T2S)
    • know the impact of CSDR on European markets and UK markets and the differences between the two jurisdictions
    • Communications and Technology
    • understand the advantages of straight-through processing (STP)
    • know the features and benefits of SWIFT messaging
    • know the features and benefits of Financial Information Exchange (FIX) Protocol messaging
  • Settlement Characteristics (22%)

    • Pre-settlement characteristics
    • understand the data required for matching settlement instructions
    • Know clearing and netting in pre-settlement
    • understand the role of third-party service providers in the pre- settlement process:
    • know the characteristics and requirements of transaction reporting
    • Settlement
    • know the settlement periods and planned changes to settlement periods for equities and bonds in the selected markets (see page 1 – ‘objective of the examination’)
    • know the characteristics of Depositary Receipts (DRs):
    • know the role of the following types of financial institutions in the settlement process:
    • know the characteristics of the following payment systems:
    • Understand settlement concepts
    • understand the transfer of legal title:
    • understand Contractual Settlement Date Accounting (CSDA) an Actual Settlement Date Accounting (ASDA)
    • understand the application of FinTech to the settlement process:
    • Failed Settlement
    • understand the main reasons for failed settlement:
    • understand the risks associated with:
    • be able to calculate interest claims based on the ICMA rules
    • understand the impact of regulations and regulatory changes on settlement discipline
  • Other Investor Services (34%)

    • Safekeeping
    • understand the principles of safekeeping client assets:
    • understand the requirements of substantial shareholding reporting
    • understand the functions of nominee companies and the following concepts:
    • be able to calculate the cost of custody for a given portfolio given a value of assets held and the basis point fee
    • Corporate Actions
    • know the characteristics of the following events:
    • know the importance of receiving timely and accurate corporate action data and the risks involved
    • be able to calculate the effect of a range of corporate actions
    • Know corporate action dates and benefit terms
    • Cash Management
    • know the importance and use of cash management
    • know the advantages and disadvantages of operating single and multi-currency accounts
    • know what is meant by the terms sweeping and pooling as they relate to base currency and settlement currency
    • know the importance of cash forecasting tools
    • Securities Financing
    • understand the role of a lending agent in securities lending and the risks and reward to those involved
    • know the definition, legal ownership implications and the advantages and disadvantages to the market
    • know the lenders’ and borrowers’ rights (including manufactured dividends and voting rights)
    • know the reasons why a loan might be recalled
    • understand the reasons for securities lending
    • understand the reasons why loans might be delayed or prevented
    • understand the roles of a Stock Borrowing and Lending Intermediary
    • understand collateral and marking to market
    • understand the requirements of Securities Financing Transactions Regulation (SFTR)
    • know the use of repurchase agreements
  • Aspects of Taxation (6%)

    • General
    • understand the tax on income arising from equities and bonds
    • understand capital gains tax (CGT) as it applies to equities and bonds
    • understand the tax treatment of discount securities
    • Know transaction taxes, withholding tax, treaties, relief, QI, FATCA and CRS
  • Risk (12%)

    • Identifying and Managing Risk
    • know the following major categories of risk:
    • understand the factors that should be considered when conducting risk reviews of market infrastructures, sub-custodian networks and outsourced functions
    • understand the areas of global custody risk and appropriate countermeasures
    • know the purpose of an International Standards for Assurance Engagements (ISAE) 3402 report/ SSAE 18
    • understand shareholder limits and restrictions
    • Mitigating Risk through Reconciliation
    • understand the risks associated with a failure to reconcile the following:

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Computer-based multiple-choice examination, available on demand at CISI test centres. The IOC page also advertises remote invigilation. Standard paper has 50 questions; up to 10% additional unidentified unscored trial questions may be included.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 50.

How long is the exam?

1 hour for the standard 50-question paper; proportionately more time is provided if additional trial questions are included.

What is the passing score?

70% (35 of 50). Pass: 35–45 marks; pass with merit: 46–50; fail: 0–34. The published 63% pass rate is not the passing threshold.

How much does the exam cost?

UK price list valid 1 April 2026–31 March 2027: GBP £155 examination fee; mandatory workbook £105 where available. A one-off £68 Qualification Registration Fee applies when registering a first qualification with CISI. Saver package £275 includes examination, workbook and Revision Express. These are UK prices, not international or total IOC qualification fees.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.