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Free Certified Professional Ethical Hacker exam Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Certified Professional Ethical Hacker exam practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1An organization authorizes assessors to mimic real attacks to identify ways around a system's security features. Which assessment technique are they performing?

    1. A.Penetration testingCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Vulnerability scanning
    3. C.Network discovery
    4. D.Security policy review

    Explanation: NIST states that "Penetration testing is security testing in which assessors mimic real-world attacks to identify methods for circumventing the security features of an application, system, or network." The authorized activity matches that definition.

    Reference: Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment — Section 5.2, page 5-2

  2. 2An assessor finds that unauthorized users can alter transaction records without detection. Which security objective is most directly affected by the unauthorized alteration?

    1. A.Confidentiality
    2. B.Availability
    3. C.IntegrityCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Accountability

    Explanation: NIST defines integrity as "Guarding against improper information modification or destruction, and includes ensuring information nonrepudiation and authenticity." Unauthorized alteration compromises the protection of the records against improper modification.

    Reference: NIST Computer Security Resource Center Glossary: Integrity — Definitions, FIPS 200

  3. 3A tester monitors existing network traffic to discover communicating hosts, without transmitting discovery probes. What discovery approach is being used?

    1. A.Active network discovery
    2. B.Passive network discoveryCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Network port and service identification
    4. D.Network vulnerability scanning

    Explanation: NIST explains that "Passive techniques use a network sniffer to monitor network traffic and record the IP addresses of the active hosts" and that this is done without sending probing packets.

    Reference: Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment — Section 4.1, page 4-1

  4. 4A sender encrypts a file with a symmetric encryption key and sends the ciphertext to an authorized recipient. What key must the recipient use for decryption?

    1. A.The sender's public key
    2. B.The recipient's public key
    3. C.The same shared secret keyCorrect answer: C
    4. D.The recipient's private key

    Explanation: NIST states, "The same key must be used to decrypt the data." The sender and recipient must therefore possess the same secret key in this symmetric encryption case.

    Reference: An Introduction to Information Security — Section 9.1.1, page 52

  5. 5Two vulnerability scanners independently flag the same suspected flaw. Which shared result would explain why agreement on the positive finding still does not establish that the flaw is present?

    1. A.A shared false-positive resultCorrect answer: A
    2. B.A shared false-negative result
    3. C.A shared true-positive result
    4. D.A shared true-negative result

    Explanation: NIST cautions that "these comparison tools can often produce similar results—including the same false positives." Agreement between scanners can therefore repeat an incorrect finding.

    Reference: Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment — Section 7.3, page 7-3

  6. 6An authenticated API user is allowed to use a document endpoint. Changing the document ID in a request reveals another user's document because the server fails to check permission for that object. Which API security risk does this illustrate?

    1. A.Broken function level authorization
    2. B.Broken object level authorizationCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Broken authentication
    4. D.Improper inventory management

    Explanation: OWASP explains that "the user will have access to the vulnerable API endpoint/function" and that "The violation happens at the object level, by manipulating the ID." That matches access to another user's document through a permitted endpoint.

    Reference: OWASP API Security Top 10: Broken Object Level Authorization — API1:2023, Is the API Vulnerable?

  7. 7In an authorized post-exploitation test, an assessor uses a captured password hash to authenticate as a user without knowing that user's plaintext password. Which technique is illustrated?

    1. A.Pass the hashCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Pass the ticket
    3. C.Use an application access token
    4. D.Use a web session cookie

    Explanation: MITRE describes "Pass the hash (PtH)" as "a method of authenticating as a user without having access to the user's cleartext password." The supplied hash is the authentication material.

    Reference: MITRE ATT&CK: Pass the Hash — Technique T1550.002, description

  8. 8An authorized social engineering exercise sends deceptive text messages directing recipients to a credential collection page. Which term identifies this technique by its delivery channel?

    1. A.Voice phishing
    2. B.SmishingCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Email phishing
    4. D.Social media phishing

    Explanation: CISA states, "Smishing is a form of social engineering that exploits SMS, or text, messages." The exercise uses that channel.

    Reference: Avoiding Social Engineering and Phishing Attacks — What is a smishing attack?

  9. 9A wireless assessor observes a rogue access point configured to advertise the MAC address of a device in the authorized inventory. Which technique explains the misleading identity match?

    1. A.MAC address spoofingCorrect answer: A
    2. B.MAC address flooding
    3. C.ARP cache poisoning
    4. D.DNS cache poisoning

    Explanation: NIST cautions, "Because MAC addresses can be spoofed, assessors should not assume that the MAC addresses of discovered devices are accurate." The rogue device reports an authorized device's address, an instance of MAC spoofing.

    Reference: Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment — Section 4.4.1, page 4-8

  10. 10An assessor prepares an internal report after a security test. Which accompanying artifact describes specific, measurable actions to address the individual vulnerabilities?

    1. A.Rules of engagement
    2. B.Plan of action and milestonesCorrect answer: B
    3. C.System security plan
    4. D.Assessment methodology

    Explanation: NIST states, "A POA&M will ensure that individual vulnerabilities are addressed with specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and tangible actions." This artifact records the corrective actions.

    Reference: Technical Guide to Information Security Testing and Assessment — Section 8.2, pages 8-1–8-2

Exam Review

About Certified Professional Ethical Hacker exam

Certified Professional Ethical Hacker exam · US

Key exam facts

Provider
Mile2
Format
Online multiple-choice examination through the Mile2 Learning Management System; standard on-demand account access.
Exam questions
Total questions: 100.
Time limit
Approximately 2 hours
Passing score
A minimum grade of 70% is required for certification.

Topics covered

  • Course Introduction

  • Introduction to Ethical Hacking

    • What is Ethical Hacking?
    • Threat Actors and Motivations
    • Hacker mindsets and methodologies
    • Rules of Engagement and Professional Conduct
    • Ethical Dilemmas and Gray Areas
    • Career Foundations
  • Cybersecurity Foundation

    • Core Cybersecurity Principles
    • Security Architecture Fundamentals
    • Essential Security Controls
    • Security Governance and Policy
    • Applying Controls and Architecture in Testing
    • Risk, Compliance, and Controls
  • Reconnaissance & Enumeration

    • Passive vs Active Reconnaissance
    • Practical Recon Tools
    • Enumeration Techniques
    • Applied Recon: Nmap, Scripting, and Enumeration
    • Practice Scenarios and Reporting
    • Capstone & Reflection
  • Cryptography

    • Cryptography Foundations
    • Symmetric Cryptography
    • Asymmetric Cryptography
    • Hashing
    • Hybrid Crypto Systems
    • Quantum Cryptography
    • Advancements in Cryptography
    • Attacking Weak Cryptography: Hashes, Keys, and Real-World Failures
  • Vulnerability Scanning & Analysis

    • Understanding VA
    • Vulnerability Assessment Methodologies
    • Interpreting and Validating Vulnerabilities
    • Prioritizing Risks in VA
    • What is Patch Management?
    • Different Types of Patches
  • Web and Application Attacks

    • OWASP Top 10 Explained
    • Bridging OWASP and CWE for Pen testers
    • API Top 10
  • Exploitation and Post-Exploitation

    • Exploitation Basics
    • Exploit Frameworks in Action
    • Post-Exploitation Fundamentals
    • Pivoting and Lateral Movement
    • Cloud Exploitation Basics
  • Social Engineering

    • Social Engineering Concepts and Psychology
    • Phishing and Digital Deception
    • Pretexting and In-Person Tactics
    • USB Drops and Device Attacks
    • Social Engineering Tools and Payloads
    • Case Studies and Field Operations
  • Wireless Pen testing

    • Wi-Fi Recon and Enumeration
    • Wi-Fi Tools
    • Sniffing
    • Authentication Attacks
    • Rogue AP
    • Wi-Fi Exploits
    • Threat Assessment
  • Reporting & Ethics

    • The Role of Reporting in Ethical Hacking
    • Writing Effective Reports
    • Ethics in Ethical Hacking
    • Professional Development and Accountability

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Online multiple-choice examination through the Mile2 Learning Management System; standard on-demand account access.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 100.

How long is the exam?

Approximately 2 hours

What is the passing score?

A minimum grade of 70% is required for certification.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.