Free CNOR® exam Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the CNOR® exam practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1Two patients with the same surname are awaiting surgery. The circulating nurse is confirming the next patient's identity before preoperative care. Which pair provides two person-specific identifiers?

   1. A. Full name and room number
   2. B. Full name and date of birth
   3. C. Date of birth and bed number
   4. D. Medical record number and room number

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The Joint Commission lists "the individual's name, an assigned identification number, telephone number, date of birth or other person-specific identifier" and states that "Use of a room number would NOT be considered an example of a unique patient identifier." Full name plus date of birth identifies the person; room and bed numbers identify locations.

   Reference: Two Patient Identifiers - Understanding The Requirements — Intent

2. 2An adult with an implanted cardiac pacemaker is scheduled for a procedure that may use electrosurgery. While developing the perioperative care plan, which source should guide device-specific interventions?

   1. A. The plan from the team managing the implanted device
   2. B. The surgeon's standing preference for electrosurgery
   3. C. The facility's general electrosurgery setup checklist
   4. D. The anesthesia team's routine plan for all pacemakers

   Answer: A

   Explanation: AORN advises that "Consulting preoperatively with the team managing the device helps the surgical team determine interventions to be performed for safe use of electrosurgery with the specific IED." This patient's pacemaker calls for a device-specific plan from its management team.

   Reference: New Guideline for Electrosurgical Safety: Key Takeaways — TAKEAWAY and EXPLANATION

3. 3A patient has a second procedure during the same anesthetic, with a different person performing it. Relative to the start of the second procedure, when does the Universal Protocol call for its additional time-out?

   1. A. During the first procedure's original time-out
   2. B. Before the second procedure begins
   3. C. During the second procedure after incision
   4. D. After the second procedure is completed

   Answer: B

   Explanation: The Universal Protocol states, "If the person performing the procedure changes, another time-out needs to be performed before starting each procedure." The second time-out must precede the second procedure even though the patient and anesthetic are unchanged.

   Reference: The Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery — Perform a time-out, p. 1

4. 4At transfer from the operating room to PACU, the receiving nurse restates the key actions and asks about an unclear contingency. Which I-PASS element is the receiving nurse performing?

   1. A. Synthesis by Receiver
   2. B. Situation Awareness
   3. C. Patient Summary
   4. D. Illness Severity

   Answer: A

   Explanation: AHRQ describes Synthesis by Receiver as "Receiver summarizes what was heard" and "Restates key actions/to-do items." The receiving nurse is checking understanding of the handoff.

   Reference: AHRQ TeamSTEPPS Tool: I-PASS — I-PASS elements, Synthesis by Receiver

5. 5A reusable surgical instrument will enter normally sterile tissue in the next case. Which reprocessing level does CDC recommend before use on that patient?

   1. A. Sterilization after thorough cleaning
   2. B. High-level disinfection after cleaning
   3. C. Intermediate-level disinfection after cleaning
   4. D. Low-level disinfection after cleaning

   Answer: A

   Explanation: CDC directs facilities to "sterilize critical medical and surgical devices and instruments that enter normally sterile tissue or the vascular system" before each patient. Cleaning precedes the sterilization process.

   Reference: CDC Recommendations for Disinfection and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities — Recommendation 3.a, critical devices

6. 6During an operation, the anesthesia team suspects an acute malignant hyperthermia crisis. Which anesthetic exposure should the perioperative team help stop immediately?

   1. A. Volatile anesthetic agents and succinylcholine
   2. B. Intravenous sedatives and opioid analgesics
   3. C. Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers
   4. D. Local anesthetic infiltration and saline

   Answer: A

   Explanation: MHAUS lists among its immediate actions: "Notify surgeon to halt the procedure ASAP: Discontinue volatile agents and succinylcholine." These are the trigger exposures to stop.

   Reference: MHAUS Managing a Crisis — Emergency Treatment for An Acute MH Event, immediate actions

7. 7A perioperative RN observes a team member whose impaired practice threatens a surgical patient's safety. What professional action does AORN's ethics standard direct the RN to take?

   1. A. Report the impaired practice through the appropriate channel
   2. B. Refer the practice concern to a routine peer-review cycle
   3. C. Add the event to the next quality-improvement meeting
   4. D. Request a future competency review for the team member

   Answer: A

   Explanation: AORN's ethics standard directs the RN to "Reports illegal, incompetent, or impaired practices." A current threat from impaired practice calls for reporting; routine review, meetings, or future competency assessment do not replace this action.

   Reference: AORN Perioperative Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice — Standard 7, Ethics, perioperative RN competencies, p. 17

8. 8The signed consent names the left side, while the OR schedule names the right side for a unilateral operation. What should the circulating RN arrange before the procedure begins?

   1. A. Follow the side on the signed consent
   2. B. Follow the side on the posted schedule
   3. C. Follow an existing site mark without reconciliation
   4. D. Reconcile the conflicting site information with the team

   Answer: D

   Explanation: The Universal Protocol says, "Address missing information or discrepancies before starting the procedure." Consent, schedule, and site marking are verification inputs; the conflicting laterality must be reconciled with the team before starting.

   Reference: The Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery — Conduct a pre-procedure verification process, p. 1

9. 9A nurse compares a patient's postoperative mobility with the mobility goal in the perioperative plan and determines whether the interventions achieved that goal. Which nursing-process phase is this?

   1. A. Assessment
   2. B. Diagnosis
   3. C. Planning
   4. D. Evaluation

   Answer: D

   Explanation: AORN's Standard 6 states, "The perioperative RN evaluates progress toward attainment of goals and outcomes." Comparing actual postoperative mobility with the planned goal is evaluation of the care plan.

   Reference: Perioperative Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice — Standard 6. Evaluation, p. 16

10. 10An antiseptic solution is transferred from its manufacturer container to an OR basin. At which point in the basin's use should the new container be labeled?

    1. A. At the time the solution is prepared in the basin
    2. B. At the time the basin is handed to the scrub person
    3. C. At the time the solution is first applied
    4. D. At the time the basin is removed after the case

    Answer: A

    Explanation: The Joint Commission says, "The hospital labels each medication or solution as soon as it is prepared." Transfer into the basin is the preparation point, so waiting for handoff, application, or removal is too late.

    Reference: National Performance Goal #14: Effectively Managing Medications — Standards, perioperative medication labeling