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Free Canadian Entry-to-Practice (CETP) Speech-Language Pathology Examination Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Canadian Entry-to-Practice (CETP) Speech-Language Pathology Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1After a left-hemisphere stroke, a client has impaired word retrieval, reading comprehension, and written expression. Which disorder best accounts for this language profile?

    1. A.AphasiaCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Dysarthria
    3. C.Apraxia of speech
    4. D.Dysphonia

    Explanation: The guidance states, "Aphasia is an acquired neurogenic language disorder resulting from an injury to the brain" The acquired impairment spans language modalities. Dysarthria and apraxia affect motor speech; dysphonia affects voice, rather than this combined language profile.

    Reference: ASHA Practice Portal: Aphasia — Overview

  2. 2An SLP reviews poststroke referral reports to determine whether a client needs a communication assessment. Which new finding most directly supports that referral?

    1. A.Difficulty understanding spoken instructions.Correct answer: A
    2. B.Difficulty maintaining balance while walking.
    3. C.Difficulty gripping objects with one hand.
    4. D.Difficulty seeing objects in one visual field.

    Explanation: The source describes "auditory comprehension deficits" as part of aphasia. New difficulty understanding spoken instructions directly supports communication assessment. Balance, grip and visual-field findings are genuine poststroke concerns but do not themselves establish the reported language concern.

    Reference: ASHA Practice Portal: Aphasia — Signs and Symptoms

  3. 3A client understands everyday speech but is confused by technical explanations of assessment findings. Which communication change should the SLP make?

    1. A.Use short, familiar words and define necessary technical terms.Correct answer: A
    2. B.Repeat the technical explanation at a slower pace without changing its terms.
    3. C.Replace the explanation with the diagnostic acronym used in the assessment.
    4. D.Expand the technical explanation by adding the complete standardized-score terminology.

    Explanation: The guidance states, "Use short, familiar words and simple sentences." Plain language reduces unnecessary language demands. Volume, greater technical detail and unexplained acronyms do not address the source of confusion.

    Reference: ASHA: Health Literacy — Applying Health Literacy Principles

  4. 4A rehabilitation team is selecting an aphasia intervention. The client communicates reliably with a picture board. How should the client participate in the planning meeting?

    1. A.A family representative should select goals because a board is needed.
    2. B.The client should review the plan after the team selects its goals.
    3. C.The client should use the board to contribute preferences during planning.Correct answer: C
    4. D.The referring professional should select goals because treatment was requested.

    Explanation: The guidance states, "Collaborate with the client during all stages of care." Communication support enables participation; needing a board does not transfer decision making to relatives or professionals. Reviewing an already selected plan misses collaboration in planning.

    Reference: National Speech-Language Pathology Competency Profile — p. 12, Collaborator a.i

  5. 5A client wants to attend treatment but misses visits because the booking system requires telephone speech the client cannot produce. What barrier should the SLP address?

    1. A.Reduced expressive vocabulary.
    2. B.Slow speech production.
    3. C.An inaccessible booking channel.Correct answer: C
    4. D.Reduced speech intelligibility.

    Explanation: The guidance states, "Identify and address the barriers that impede or prevent access to services and resources by the client, according to his or her goals." The booking method prevents access despite the client's intention to attend. Changing practice stimuli or treating missed visits as unwillingness does not address that access barrier.

    Reference: National Speech-Language Pathology Competency Profile — p. 13, Advocate a.i

  6. 6Two school SLPs serve the same number of students, but their assessment, consultation, and documentation demands differ. Which measure captures the complete set of required professional activities?

    1. A.Caseload
    2. B.WorkloadCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Session attendance
    4. D.Direct-service count

    Explanation: The guidance states, "Workload refers to all activities required and performed by school-based SLPs." Workload includes more than direct sessions or student counts. This is a workload-analysis principle, not an assertion that US educational legislation governs a Canadian school.

    Reference: ASHA Practice Portal: Caseload and Workload — Overview

  7. 7A SAC-member SLP is asked to disclose a client's record. The client has not authorized disclosure and no law requires it. What is the appropriate basis for releasing the information?

    1. A.The requester's professional title establishes authorization.
    2. B.The requester's family relationship establishes authorization.
    3. C.The client's informed consent is needed before disclosure.Correct answer: C
    4. D.The existence of a completed report establishes authorization.

    Explanation: The guidance states, "Obtain informed consent from the patient or client before sharing the patient or client’s information with others unless the member or associate is required to do so by law." With no legal disclosure requirement and no authorization, consent is needed. A title, family relationship or completed report does not establish permission.

    Reference: SAC Code of Ethics, Revised 2024 — p. 4, Standard 3(f)

  8. 8An adolescent's speech is perceived as excessively rapid and irregular, with frequent irregular pauses and over-coarticulation. Which fluency diagnosis should the SLP investigate?

    1. A.ClutteringCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Stuttering
    3. C.Spasmodic dysphonia
    4. D.Acquired apraxia of speech

    Explanation: The guidance states, "a rate that is perceived to be abnormally rapid and/or irregular;" The rate pattern together with irregular pauses and over-coarticulation supports investigating cluttering. Stuttering involves disrupted speech flow with stuttering disfluencies; the voice and motor-planning diagnoses do not describe this fluency pattern.

    Reference: ASHA Practice Portal: Stuttering, Cluttering, and Fluency — Overview — Definition of Cluttering

  9. 9A trained screener identifies possible aphasia in a hospitalized adult. What is the appropriate interpretation of this screening result?

    1. A.It identifies a need for further language assessment.Correct answer: A
    2. B.It establishes the severity classification of aphasia.
    3. C.It determines the specific aphasia subtype for treatment.
    4. D.It provides the prognosis for long-term language recovery.

    Explanation: The guidance states, "Screening is a procedure for identifying the need for further assessment" A screen identifies possible need for comprehensive assessment, rather than supplying a detailed diagnosis, severity, subtype or prognosis.

    Reference: ASHA Practice Portal: Aphasia — Assessment — Screening

  10. 10During discussion of treatment choices, a client points to letters on a nonelectronic communication board to spell a message. Which communication mode is being used?

    1. A.Low-tech aided AACCorrect answer: A
    2. B.High-tech aided AAC
    3. C.Unaided manual communication
    4. D.Natural speech

    Explanation: The source states, "Nonelectronic aided forms are often referred to as “light-tech” or “low-tech.”" The letter board is an external nonelectronic tool, so it is low-tech aided AAC. High-tech AAC uses electronics, unaided communication does not use an external tool, and pointing to letters is not natural speech.

    Reference: ASHA Practice Portal: Augmentative and Alternative Communication — AAC Systems — Aided and Unaided Communication

Exam Review

About Canadian Entry-to-Practice (CETP) Speech-Language Pathology Examination

Canadian Entry-to-Practice (CETP) Speech-Language Pathology Examination · CA

Key exam facts

Provider
Speech-Language & Audiology Canada (SAC), through its CETP Department, administers the national examination on behalf of provincial regulatory bodies. The National Alliance (formerly CAASPR) sets the blueprint; Meazure Learning provides examination delivery support.
Format
Computer-based examination at a testing centre or at home with live remote proctoring. Four-option, single-correct-answer multiple-choice questions, including independent questions and case-based sets.
Exam questions
Total questions: 170.
Time limit
3 hours 45 minutes of answering time: Part 1, 2 hours; Part 2, 1 hour 45 minutes. Check-in and platform tutorial are separate. Additional time requires approved accommodations.
Passing score
330 on a standardized 100–550 scale; modified Angoff standard setting. This is a scaled score, not a percentage correct.
Exam fee
CAD $1,325 including tax, effective April 1, 2026; the same enrollment fee applies to all candidates, with no reductions or waivers.

Topics covered

The authority publishes percentage ranges for each content area. The practice percentages below use the midpoint of each range, normalized to 100%; they are not exact percentages published by the authority. Practice question counts may differ slightly because of rounding.

  • Knowledge Expert — Official range: 20–30% (Practice allocation: 25%)

    • Apply profession-specific knowledge to prevent, identify and manage communication disorders, and feeding and swallowing disorders across the lifespan.
    • Apply knowledge of communication development and disorders to clinical practice.
    • Apply knowledge of feeding and swallowing development and disorders to clinical practice.
    • Apply knowledge of prevention, assessment and intervention processes to clinical practice.
    • Apply basic knowledge from relevant fields that apply to communication and feeding and swallowing across the lifespan.
    • Apply basic knowledge from relevant fields (e.g., human physiology, psychology) to clinical practice.
    • Apply knowledge of hearing, hearing loss and disorders of the auditory system to the practice of speech-language pathology.
    • Apply knowledge of auditory function, hearing loss and disorders of the auditory system to the service provided to clients, where applicable.
    • Effectively administer standard hearing screening protocols to clients.
    • Use evidence and clinical reasoning to guide professional decisions.
    • Critically appraise research and other available evidence to inform clinical practice.
    • Integrate current leading evidence and clinical reasoning in clinical practice.

  • Clinical Expert — Official range: 35–45% (Practice allocation: 40%)

    • Identify individuals requiring speech-language pathology services.
    • Collect and review information from relevant sources (e.g., referrals, reports, consultation) to determine an individual’s need for a speech-language pathology assessment.
    • Manage and promote screening programs (e.g., infant, school-aged, feeding and swallowing) to identify individuals requiring speech-language pathology services.
    • Plan, conduct and adjust an assessment.
    • Collect and analyze pertinent information prior to the assessment, including: case history, previous reports and the client’s perspectives.
    • Organize the environment for an optimal interaction.
    • Plan the assessment, including the appropriate tools, strategies and resources that will address the unique needs of the client.
    • Conduct a valid, accurate and reliable assessment, modifying as necessary.
    • Actively listen to and observe all components of communication and/or feeding and swallowing.
    • Provide a re-assessment as appropriate.
    • Analyze and interpret assessment results.
    • Analyze formal and informal assessment results.
    • Interpret the data accurately.
    • Formulate conclusions regarding the client’s diagnosis, abilities, resources and needs.
    • Develop and share recommendations based on assessment results.
    • Develop evidence-informed recommendations, including potential referrals to other professionals, based on the assessment findings.
    • Discuss the assessment results, recommendations and implications with the client and other relevant individuals, as permitted by client.
    • Develop a realistic, evidence-informed and measurable intervention plan.
    • Establish and prioritize long-term intervention goals that reflect the client’s strengths, needs, values, expectations and constraints.
    • Develop specific, measurable, realistic, time-limited, short-term goals to reach the long-term intervention goals.
    • Develop an evidence-informed intervention plan with direct and/or indirect service delivery, as appropriate, to target the short-term goals.
    • Determine the resources and timelines required for the intervention.
    • Develop outcome measures that align with the client’s long-term goals.
    • Identify and recommend alternative services for a client whose needs are beyond the professional limitations of the speech-language pathologist.
    • Implement an intervention plan.
    • Organize the environment for an optimal interaction.
    • Conduct the intervention, modifying as appropriate.
    • Measure and record the client’s response to intervention.
    • Provide appropriate feedback and modelling to the client.
    • Use the appropriate modalities, materials and technologies in the provision of service.
    • Provide the client and family or significant others with education, support, training and counselling, relating to communication, feeding or swallowing.
    • Refer to other health care or educational professionals as required.
    • Monitor, adapt and/or redesign an intervention plan based on the client’s responses and needs.
    • Evaluate the outcomes of the intervention on an ongoing basis.
    • Modify the intervention, as appropriate.
    • Consult with the client when considering a change in the course of action.
    • Plan for discharge and/or transition to other services.
    • Discontinue the intervention, as appropriate.
    • Provide clinical direction and oversight to support personnel.
    • Incorporate support personnel in clinical care to meet the clinical objectives, as appropriate to the clinical activity and jurisdiction.
    • Facilitate the integration of support personnel into the service model or employment context in a manner that is appropriate to their scope of practice.
    • Determine the capabilities of support personnel.
    • Provide tasks to support personnel based on their competencies.
    • Provide the necessary training of support personnel.
    • Monitor and review the performance of support personnel.

  • Communicator — Official range: 5–15% (Practice allocation: 10%)

    • Communicate respectfully and effectively using appropriate modalities.
    • Use language appropriate to the client and context, taking into account age, culture, linguistic abilities, education level, cognitive abilities and emotional state.
    • Employ environmental and communication strategies to minimize barriers to successful communication, including the use of appropriate modes of communication (e.g., oral, non-verbal, written, electronic).
    • Mitigate language barriers by using translators/interpreters, as required.
    • Recognize and respond to the client’s verbal and non-verbal communication.
    • Use strategies to facilitate a mutual understanding of shared information.
    • Participate respectfully in challenging conversations.
    • Maintain client documentation.
    • Accurately document services provided and their outcomes.
    • Document informed consent.
    • Complete and disseminate documentation in a timely manner.
    • Comply with regulatory and legislative requirements related to documentation.

  • Collaborator — Official range: 3–7% (Practice allocation: 5%)

    • Establish and maintain effective collaborations to optimize client outcomes.
    • Collaborate with the client during all stages of care.
    • Interact effectively with all team members.
    • Communicate one's professional roles, responsibilities and scope of practice in collaborative interactions with the client, caregivers and relevant professionals.
    • Recognize and respect the roles and perspectives of other individuals.
    • Manage misunderstandings, limitations and conflicts to enhance collaborative practice.
    • Facilitate transfer of care within and across professions.

  • Advocate — Official range: 3–7% (Practice allocation: 5%)

    • Advocate for necessary services and resources that support an individual client.
    • Identify and address the barriers that impede or prevent access to services and resources by the client, according to his or her goals.
    • Encourage the client’s societal inclusion and participation.
    • Consult with the appropriate individual(s) and/or organization(s) to obtain available services and resources for the client.
    • Provide information and support to promote a client’s self-advocacy.
    • Identify and provide information and tools to assist the client, or SDM to access services and supports.
    • Enable the client to identify and address barriers that impede or prevent access to services and resources.

  • Manager — Official range: 3–7% (Practice allocation: 5%)

    • Manage the clinical setting.
    • Balance competing demands to manage time, caseload, resources and priorities.
    • Apply appropriate precautions, risk management and infection control measures, as required.
    • Ensure equipment, materials, instruments, and devices are regularly calibrated, up to date and in good working condition, according to the required standards.
    • Identify opportunities to improve practice models within workplace settings.
    • Participate in or lead quality improvement initiatives.
    • Address problems in one’s clinical setting that are related to provincial or national accessibility standards for providing services to the public.

  • Professional — Official range: 5–15% (Practice allocation: 10%)

    • Maintain professional demeanour in all clinical interactions and settings.
    • Maintain confidentiality.
    • Demonstrate professionalism in managing conflict.
    • Maintain personal and professional boundaries in relationships with clients, colleagues and other professionals.
    • Recognize and respond appropriately to the inherent power differential in the client- clinician relationship.
    • Demonstrate professionalism in all communications, including those involving electronic platforms.
    • Practice ethically.
    • Adhere to professional code of ethics, as defined within one’s jurisdiction.
    • Recognize and use critical judgment to respond to ethical issues encountered in practice.
    • Recognize and use critical judgment to respond to actual or perceived conflicts of interest.
    • Identify one’s own biases, as they relate to the care of a client.
    • Actively work to mitigate one’s biases, as they relate to the care of a client.
    • If unable to overcome significant biases, provide the client with alternative options.
    • Adhere to professional standards and regulatory requirements.
    • Stay informed of and comply with professional standards and regulatory and legislative requirements within one’s jurisdiction.
    • Practice within the profession’s scope of practice and one’s personal capabilities.
    • Comply with regulatory body requirements to maintain competency, as defined within one’s jurisdiction.

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Computer-based examination at a testing centre or at home with live remote proctoring. Four-option, single-correct-answer multiple-choice questions, including independent questions and case-based sets.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 170.

How long is the exam?

3 hours 45 minutes of answering time: Part 1, 2 hours; Part 2, 1 hour 45 minutes. Check-in and platform tutorial are separate. Additional time requires approved accommodations.

What is the passing score?

330 on a standardized 100–550 scale; modified Angoff standard setting. This is a scaled score, not a percentage correct.

How much does the exam cost?

CAD $1,325 including tax, effective April 1, 2026; the same enrollment fee applies to all candidates, with no reductions or waivers.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.