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Free Canadian Entry-to-Practice (CETP) Audiology Examination Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Canadian Entry-to-Practice (CETP) Audiology Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1An adult asks which inner-ear structure contains the sensory cells that convert sound-related motion into neural activity. Which structure should the audiologist identify?

    1. A.CochleaCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Utricle
    3. C.Saccule
    4. D.Semicircular canals

    Explanation: The source states: "Hair cells—sensory cells sitting on top of the basilar membrane—ride the wave." The cochlea contains the auditory hair cells; the other named inner-ear structures serve vestibular sensation.

    Reference: NIDCD — How Do We Hear? — How do we hear?

  2. 2An adult contacts the audiology clinic after abruptly losing hearing in one ear this morning. The canal appears clear. Which timing should the audiologist recommend for medical assessment?

    1. A.After completing a hearing-aid trial
    2. B.ImmediatelyCorrect answer: B
    3. C.After a two-week observation period
    4. D.At the next routine annual examination

    Explanation: "you should consider sudden deafness symptoms a medical emergency and visit a doctor immediately." Sudden unexplained loss requires prompt medical evaluation rather than routine follow-up or amplification trial.

    Reference: NIDCD — Sudden Deafness — What is sudden deafness?

  3. 3A client unfamiliar with audiology terminology asks what the hearing test will involve. Which explanation best adapts language to the client?

    1. A.You will perform a calibrated detection paradigm.
    2. B.You will signal when you hear a tone.Correct answer: B
    3. C.You will provide a psychophysical threshold response.
    4. D.You will complete frequency-specific liminal estimation.

    Explanation: "Use language appropriate to the client and context" The plain-language explanation conveys the response task without requiring technical vocabulary.

    Reference: National Audiology Competency Profile — p. 12 — Communicator a.i

  4. 4A capable adult wants to help choose rehabilitation goals and discuss options, while asking the audiologist to explain the technical evidence. Which arrangement follows person-centred collaboration?

    1. A.Have the client attend every professional meeting as a condition of care.
    2. B.Support the client's chosen participation and provide the requested technical explanation.Correct answer: B
    3. C.Let a care partner select the goals and report the final choice to the client.
    4. D.Let the clinician select the goals and seek the client's acceptance of the completed plan.

    Explanation: "Support participation of the person receiving services and their care partners at the level they choose." Collaboration supports the level and form of participation chosen by the person. Mandatory attendance or transferring the desired goal-setting role to another person does not match this client's expressed preference.

    Reference: ASHA — Aural Rehabilitation for Adults — Person- and Family-Centered Care

  5. 5An adult cannot travel to an aural rehabilitation clinic. The planned sessions are clinically suitable for secure video delivery, and the client can use the technology at home. Which service format removes the need to travel for these sessions?

    1. A.Individual sessions at the clinic
    2. B.Group sessions at the clinic
    3. C.Video sessions from the client's homeCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Alternating clinic and home-video sessions

    Explanation: "the AR plan could include individual and/or group sessions and could be provided utilizing in-person sessions and/or telehealth options" Home-based video delivery addresses this client's travel barrier. Individual versus group format does not remove travel when the setting remains the clinic, and a hybrid schedule still requires some travel.

    Reference: ASHA — Aural Rehabilitation for Adults — Service Delivery

  6. 6An audiologist has 180 minutes of appointment time. Two booked assessments require 45 minutes each. Each additional follow-up requires 30 minutes, and no other time is available. What is the maximum number of complete follow-ups that fit?

    1. A.2 follow-ups
    2. B.3 follow-upsCorrect answer: B
    3. C.4 follow-ups
    4. D.6 follow-ups

    Explanation: "Balance competing demands to manage time, caseload, resources and priorities." The assessments use 2 × 45 = 90 minutes. Available follow-up time is 180 − 90 = 90 minutes, allowing 90 ÷ 30 = 3 complete follow-ups. Two results from incorrectly using the assessment duration, 90 ÷ 45. Four results from incorrectly allowing only 30 minutes per assessment: (180 − 60) ÷ 30. Six results from ignoring the assessments: 180 ÷ 30.

    Reference: National Audiology Competency Profile — p. 16 — Manager a.i

  7. 7An SAC-member audiologist is asked to send a capable adult's assessment to a family member. No legal disclosure requirement applies. What is needed before sharing it?

    1. A.The family member's agreement to pay the invoice
    2. B.The family's knowledge of the appointment date
    3. C.The client's informed consent to the disclosureCorrect answer: C
    4. D.The family member's request for the information

    Explanation: "Obtain informed consent from the patient or client before sharing the patient or client’s information with others unless the member or associate is required to do so by law." A family relationship or payment does not replace the capable client's consent.

    Reference: SAC Code of Ethics — p. 4 — 3. Informed Consent, f

  8. 8A client has difficulty detecting high-pitched warning tones. When explaining cochlear frequency organization, where does the audiologist locate the cells most responsive to high-pitched sounds?

    1. A.Throughout the saccular sensory surface
    2. B.Near the wide end of the cochleaCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Near the central end of the cochlea
    4. D.Throughout the utricular sensory surface

    Explanation: The source states: "Hair cells near the wide end of the snail-shaped cochlea detect higher-pitched sounds, such as an infant crying." High-frequency sensitivity is associated with the wide basal end, rather than the central end or vestibular organs.

    Reference: NIDCD — How Do We Hear? — How do we hear?

  9. 9A referral describes continuing difficulty understanding speech in noise. Before deciding what additional audiologic assessment is needed, which previous report would show whether that specific difficulty had already been measured?

    1. A.A tympanometry report
    2. B.A speech-in-noise assessment reportCorrect answer: B
    3. C.An otoacoustic-emissions report
    4. D.A pure-tone threshold audiogram

    Explanation: "speech audiometry in quiet and in noise (e.g., speech thresholds, word recognition measures, speech-in-noise [SIN] tests)" A speech-in-noise report directly documents assessment of the referred difficulty. Tympanometry, emissions and pure-tone thresholds address other auditory measures.

    Reference: ASHA — Hearing Loss in Adults — Assessment — Audiologic assessment

  10. 10During counselling, a fan masks the audiologist's speech. The speech level at the client's ear must remain unchanged. Which adjustment directly improves the speech-to-background-noise relationship?

    1. A.Increase illumination of the speaker's face.
    2. B.Add written captions to the display.
    3. C.Lower the fan's background sound level.Correct answer: C
    4. D.Adjust seating to improve the view of the speaker.

    Explanation: "minimizing background noise" Reducing the competing fan noise improves the acoustic relationship while speech level stays fixed. Lighting, captions and visual positioning can support communication but do not directly reduce the stated acoustic background level.

    Reference: ASHA — Aural Rehabilitation for Adults — AR Plan of Care — Environmental Modifications

Exam Review

About Canadian Entry-to-Practice (CETP) Audiology Examination

Canadian Entry-to-Practice (CETP) Audiology Examination · CA

Key exam facts

Provider
Speech-Language & Audiology Canada (SAC), through its CETP Department, administers the exam on behalf of regulatory bodies; the National Alliance of Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Regulators sets the blueprint; Meazure Learning supports delivery.
Format
Computer-based multiple-choice examination with independent and case-based questions, at a testing centre or with live remote proctoring; English and French.
Exam questions
Total questions: 170.
Time limit
3 hours 45 minutes of answering time: Part 1, 2 hours; Part 2, 1 hour 45 minutes.
Passing score
Passing scaled score: 330 on the 100–550 scale; modified Angoff standard setting. This is not a percentage-correct threshold.
Exam fee
$1,325 including tax, effective April 1, 2026; same enrollment fee for all candidates, including repeat candidates. Official public fee paragraph prints '$' without an explicit currency code.

Topics covered

The authority publishes percentage ranges for each content area. The practice percentages below use the midpoint of each range, normalized to 100%; they are not exact percentages published by the authority. Practice question counts may differ slightly because of rounding.

  • Knowledge Expert — Official range: 20–30% (Practice allocation: 25%)

    • a. Apply profession-specific knowledge to prevent, identify and manage auditory and vestibular disorders across the lifespan.
    • Apply knowledge of the peripheral and central auditory system to prevent, identify, and manage auditory disorders across the lifespan.
    • ii. Apply knowledge of the vestibular system to identify and manage vestibular disorders across the lifespan.
    • iii. Apply knowledge of diagnostic procedures to the services provided to the client.
    • iv. Apply knowledge of communication, auditory, and vestibular rehabilitation techniques and strategies to minimize the impact of auditory and vestibular disorders on the client.
    • v. Apply knowledge of assessment and management of the acoustic and physical environment to prevent and/or minimize the impact of auditory or communication disorders.
    • vi. Apply knowledge of instrumentation and technology to the management of auditory and vestibular disorders.
    • b. Apply basic knowledge from relevant fields that apply to communication, auditory and vestibular function across the lifespan.
    • Integrate basic knowledge from relevant fields (e.g., human physiology, acoustics, electroacoustics, psychology) into clinical practice.
    • c. Apply knowledge of typical and disordered speech and language to the practice of audiology.
    • Apply knowledge of typical and disordered speech and language to the service provided to clients, as applicable.
    • d. Use evidence and clinical reasoning to guide professional decisions
    • i. Critically appraise research and other available evidence to inform clinical practice.
    • ii. Integrate current leading evidence and clinical reasoning in clinical practice.

  • Clinical Expert — Official range: 35–45% (Practice allocation: 40%)

    • e. Identify individuals requiring audiology services.
    • Collect and review information from relevant sources (e.g., referrals, reports, consultation) to determine an individual’s need for an audiology assessment.
    • ii. Manage and promote screening programs (e.g., infant, industrial, school) to identify individuals requiring audiology services.
    • Plan, conduct and adjust an assessment.
    • In partnership with the client, substitute decision-maker and family, as appropriate, collect and analyze pertinent personal information about the client (e.g., case history, client goals, expectations, motivations, needs, activity limitations, participation restrictions).
    • ii. Collect and analyze pertinent information from external sources of information (e.g., previous reports, consultation) required to understand the client’s situation.
    • iii. Plan a valid, accurate and reliable assessment, selecting the tools, equipment and techniques that will address the unique needs of the client.
    • iv. Conduct the assessment, modifying as necessary.
    • g. Analyze and interpret assessment results.
    • i. Interpret the assessment data using knowledge, skill and judgment.
    • ii. Integrate the data and formulate a conclusion (e.g., regarding site of lesion, functionality, reliability, needs of the client).
    • h. Develop and share recommendations based on the assessment results.
    • i. Develop recommendations for intervention, including appropriate technology, modifications to the acoustic environment and/or referrals.
    • ii. Discuss the assessment findings, recommendations and implications with the client and other relevant individuals and/or organizations.
    • Develop a realistic, evidence-informed, and measurable intervention plan.
    • Develop objectives for the intervention reflecting the client’s goals, needs, values, expectations, and constraints.
    • Determine the resources and projected timelines required for the intervention.
    • Prioritize the intervention objectives.
    • Develop an evidence-informed intervention plan with direct and/or indirect service delivery, as appropriate, to address the goals identified in the assessment.
    • Consult with others, as required.
    • Identify and recommend alternative services for a client whose needs are beyond the professional limitations of the audiologist.
    • Incorporate outcome measures into the intervention plan.
    • Implement intervention plan.
    • i. Prescribe technology, as appropriate to the client’s needs.
    • ii. Dispense technology safely and accurately, troubleshooting as necessary (including verification and validation procedures).
    • iii. Provide the client and appropriate caregivers with education, training, treatment and counseling, as appropriate.
    • iv. Manage and promote hearing conservation and hearing loss prevention programs.
    • v. Demonstrate the appropriate use of equipment, instruments, and/or devices.
    • vi. Refer to other health care or educational professionals as required.
    • k. Monitor, adapt and/or redesign intervention plan based on the client’s responses and needs.
    • i. Evaluate the outcomes of the intervention on an ongoing basis.
    • ii. Modify, limit or discontinue an intervention as appropriate.
    • iii. Consult with the client when considering a change in the course of action.
    • iv. Make referrals, and/or consult with other professionals, as required.
    • Provide clinical direction and oversight to support personnel.
    • Incorporate support personnel in clinical care to meet the clinical objectives, as appropriate to the clinical activity and jurisdiction.
    • ii. Facilitate the integration of support personnel into the service model or employment context in a manner that is appropriate to their scope of practice.
    • iii. Determine the capabilities of support personnel.
    • iv. Provide tasks to support personnel based on their competencies.
    • v. Provide the necessary training of support personnel.
    • vi. Monitor and review the performance of support personnel.

  • Communicator — Official range: 5–15% (Practice allocation: 10%)

    • a. Communicate respectfully and effectively using appropriate modalities.
    • Use language appropriate to the client and context, taking into account age, culture, linguistic abilities, education level, cognitive abilities and emotional state.
    • ii. Employ environmental and communication strategies to minimize barriers to successful communication, including the use of appropriate modes of communication (e.g., oral, non-verbal, written, electronic).
    • iii. Mitigate language barriers by using translators/interpreters, as required.
    • iv. Recognize and respond to the client’s verbal and non-verbal communication.
    • v. Use strategies to facilitate a mutual understanding of shared information.
    • vi. Participate respectfully in challenging conversations.
    • b. Maintain client documentation.
    • i. Accurately document services provided and their outcomes.
    • ii. Document informed consent.
    • iii. Complete and disseminate documentation in a timely manner.
    • iv. Comply with regulatory and legislative requirements related to documentation.

  • Collaborator — Official range: 3–7% (Practice allocation: 5%)

    • a. Establish and maintain effective collaborations to optimize client outcomes.
    • i. Collaborate with the client during all stages of care.
    • ii. Interact effectively with all team members.
    • iii. Communicate one's professional roles, responsibilities and scope of practice in collaborative interactions with the client, caregivers and relevant professionals.
    • iv. Recognize and respect the roles and perspectives of other individuals.
    • v. Manage misunderstandings, limitations and conflicts to enhance collaborative practice.
    • vi. Facilitate transfer of care within and across professions.

  • Advocate — Official range: 3–7% (Practice allocation: 5%)

    • a. Advocate for necessary services and resources that support an individual client.
    • Identify and address the barriers that impede or prevent access to services and resources by the client, according to his or her goals.
    • ii. Encourage the client’s societal inclusion and participation.
    • iii. Consult with the appropriate individual(s) and/or organization(s) to obtain available services and resources for the client.
    • b. Provide information and support to promote a client’s self- advocacy.
    • i. Identify and provide information and tools to assist the client, or SDM to access services and supports.
    • ii. Enable the client to identify and address barriers that impede or prevent access to services and resources.

  • Manager — Official range: 3–7% (Practice allocation: 5%)

    • a. Manage the clinical setting.
    • i. Balance competing demands to manage time, caseload, resources and priorities.
    • ii. Apply appropriate precautions, risk management and infection control measures, as required.
    • iii. Ensure equipment, materials, instruments, and devices are regularly calibrated, up to date and in good working condition, according to the required standards.
    • iv. Identify opportunities to improve practice models within workplace settings.
    • v. Participate in or lead quality improvement initiatives.
    • vi. Address problems in one’s clinical setting that are related to provincial or national accessibility standards for providing services to the public.

  • Professional — Official range: 5–15% (Practice allocation: 10%)

    • a. Maintain professional demeanour in all clinical interactions and settings.
    • i. Maintain confidentiality.
    • ii. Demonstrate professionalism in managing conflict.
    • iii. Maintain personal and professional boundaries in relationships with clients, colleagues and other professionals.
    • iv. Recognize and respond appropriately to the inherent power differential in the client- clinician relationship.
    • v. Demonstrate professionalism in all communications, including those involving electronic platforms.
    • b. Practice ethically.
    • i. Adhere to professional code of ethics, as defined within one’s jurisdiction.
    • ii. Recognize and use critical judgment to respond to ethical issues encountered in practice.
    • iii. Recognize and use critical judgment to respond to actual or perceived conflicts of interest.
    • iv. Identify one’s own biases, as they relate to the care of a client.
    • v. Actively work to mitigate one’s biases, as they relate to the care of a client.
    • vi. If unable to overcome significant biases, provide the client with alternative options.
    • c. Adhere to professional standards and regulatory requirements.
    • Stay informed of and comply with professional standards and regulatory and legislative requirements within one’s jurisdiction.
    • ii. Practice within the profession’s scope of practice and one’s personal capabilities.
    • iii. Comply with regulatory body requirements to maintain competency, as defined within one’s jurisdiction.

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Computer-based multiple-choice examination with independent and case-based questions, at a testing centre or with live remote proctoring; English and French.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 170.

How long is the exam?

3 hours 45 minutes of answering time: Part 1, 2 hours; Part 2, 1 hour 45 minutes.

What is the passing score?

Passing scaled score: 330 on the 100–550 scale; modified Angoff standard setting. This is not a percentage-correct threshold.

How much does the exam cost?

$1,325 including tax, effective April 1, 2026; same enrollment fee for all candidates, including repeat candidates. Official public fee paragraph prints '$' without an explicit currency code.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.