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Free CAMRT Radiological Technology Certification Examination Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the CAMRT Radiological Technology Certification Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1An Ontario radiographer is checking which provincial statute specifically governs the application of ionizing radiation during a diagnostic X-ray examination. Which Act should be consulted?

    1. A.Health Care Consent Act
    2. B.Healing Arts Radiation Protection ActCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Personal Health Information Protection Act
    4. D.Regulated Health Professions Act

    Explanation: CMRITO states that registrants applying ionizing radiation act "under the authority of and in accordance with the Healing Arts Radiation Protection Act". This is the specific radiation-protection statute governing the proposed X-ray application; the other Acts address consent, personal health information, and the broader regulation of health professions.

    Reference: CMRITO Standards of Practice — Standard 3, page 6

  2. 2A patient arrives for radiography after a ward transfer. Which pair is suitable for the WHO's recommended two-identifier check before providing care?

    1. A.Patient's full name and date of birthCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Patient's room number and bed number
    3. C.Patient's ward name and room number
    4. D.Patient's full name and room number

    Explanation: WHO recommends "at least two identifiers (e.g. name and date of birth)" and states, "Neither of these identifiers should be the patient’s room number." Name and birth date identify the person; room, bed and ward indicate location and cannot replace that check after transfer.

    Reference: WHO Patient Identification — Suggested actions, 1b, page 2

  3. 3A radiographer is selecting a protective lead apron for an examination at 125 kV peak tube voltage. Under Safety Code 35, what is the minimum required lead-equivalent attenuation for the apron?

    1. A.0.25 mm Pb
    2. B.0.35 mm PbCorrect answer: B
    3. C.0.50 mm Pb
    4. D.0.75 mm Pb

    Explanation: Safety Code 35 specifies "0.35 mm of lead, for examinations where the peak X-ray tube voltage is greater than 100 kV and less than 150 kV". The 125 kV examination falls in this interval. The question asks for the minimum: 0.25 mm is insufficient, while 0.50 and 0.75 mm exceed the stated minimum.

    Reference: Health Canada Safety Code 35 — B.4.1 Protective equipment

  4. 4After making an exposure with a capacitor-discharge mobile X-ray unit, the radiographer must fully discharge the unit before leaving it unattended. What equipment condition accounts for the possibility of further X-ray emission without activation of the exposure switch?

    1. A.Residual charge in the capacitorsCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Residual heat in the anode assembly
    3. C.Residual light in the image receptor
    4. D.Residual motion in the rotating anode

    Explanation: Residual electrical charge in the capacitors can produce dark current. Safety Code 35 states that this can "result in X-ray emission even though the irradiation switch is not activated." Anode heat, receptor light and anode motion do not account for the stated dark-current hazard.

    Reference: Health Canada Safety Code 35 — A.2.2 Requirements and recommendations for operation of mobile equipment

  5. 5Before acquiring a long series of radiographs, a radiographer follows Safety Code 35's recommendation to verify settings using a preliminary acquisition. How many preliminary images does the code specify for that verification?

    1. A.One preliminary imageCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Two preliminary images
    3. C.Three preliminary images
    4. D.Five preliminary images

    Explanation: Safety Code 35 states: "a single preliminary image of the series should be taken to verify correctness of settings." The specified initial check uses one image, enabling correction before acquiring the planned long series.

    Reference: Health Canada Safety Code 35 — A.3.2.2 Requirements and recommendations for radiographic procedures

  6. 6A radiographer compares detectors' ability to preserve the quantum signal-to-noise information in the incident X-rays. Which metric describes that efficiency?

    1. A.Modulation transfer function
    2. B.Noise power spectrum
    3. C.Detective quantum efficiencyCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Spatial sampling interval

    Explanation: The IAEA states: "This leads to the definition of the detective quantum efficiency, DQE, a measure of the fraction of the quantum SNR of the incident quanta that is recorded in the image by an imaging system." DQE compares squared output and input quantum SNR. MTF describes spatial-frequency transfer, NPS noise-frequency content, and sampling interval spatial spacing.

    Reference: Diagnostic Radiology Physics: A Handbook for Teachers and Students — 4.6.2 Detective quantum efficiency

  7. 7An Ontario radiographer receives four routine requests for a patient's imaging information. The patient has given no separate authorization, and no disclosure is required by law. Which request has a purpose that CMRITO expressly identifies as an exception to keeping the information confidential?

    1. A.An employer requests images to assess the patient's fitness for work.
    2. B.An insurer requests images to assess the patient's reimbursement claim.
    3. C.A relative requests images to understand the patient's recent symptoms.
    4. D.A treating physician requests images to plan the patient's ongoing care.Correct answer: D

    Explanation: CMRITO requires registrants to "keep all patient information confidential except when necessary to facilitate diagnosis or treatment of the patient, or when legally obliged or allowed to disclose such information". The treating physician requests information for treatment. Employment, insurance, and family interest do not themselves establish that exception or another authority to disclose in this scenario.

    Reference: CMRITO Standards of Practice — Standard 5, indicator l, page 15

  8. 8A radiographer is choosing a patient-handling method. Which assessment finding distinguishes a lift from an assisted transfer in CCOHS guidance?

    1. A.The patient cannot bear weight on either leg.Correct answer: A
    2. B.The patient can bear weight on only one leg.
    3. C.The patient needs verbal cues to coordinate standing.
    4. D.The patient needs a gait belt to steady standing.

    Explanation: CCOHS distinguishes a transfer, where the patient assists and can bear weight on at least one leg, from a lift: "A lift involves moving a client who cannot bear weight on at least one leg." Here, inability to bear weight on either leg is the defining finding. Cues or standing support may be needed during an assisted transfer without changing that definition.

    Reference: CCOHS Safe Patient Handling Program — Difference between patient transfers and patient lifts

  9. 9During a mobile X-ray exposure, an operator is outside the direct beam, wearing no personal protective equipment and using no leaded shield. What is the minimum distance from the X-ray tube required by Safety Code 35?

    1. A.1 metre
    2. B.2 metres
    3. C.3 metresCorrect answer: C
    4. D.4 metres

    Explanation: Safety Code 35 states: "The operator must not stand in the direction of the direct beam and must be least 3 metres from the X-ray tube unless wearing personal protective equipment or standing behind a leaded shield." Neither exception applies. Three metres is the minimum; four metres also meets the requirement but is not the minimum.

    Reference: Health Canada Safety Code 35 — A.2.2 Requirements and recommendations for operation of mobile equipment

  10. 10A radiographer rejects a digital image for a predefined positioning-quality problem. Under Safety Code 35, for which routine quality process must that rejected image be collected?

    1. A.Routine display calibration
    2. B.Routine dose-meter calibration
    3. C.Routine rejection analysisCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Routine beam-alignment testing

    Explanation: Safety Code 35 requires: "All rejected images must be collected for use during routine rejection analysis." The rejected clinical image contributes to analysis of rejection patterns. The other choices are equipment quality-control processes and are not the specified use of rejected patient images.

    Reference: Health Canada Safety Code 35 — A.3.2.1 General requirements and recommendations

Exam Review

About CAMRT Radiological Technology Certification Examination

CAMRT Radiological Technology Certification Examination · CA

Key exam facts

Provider
Canadian Association of Medical Radiation Technologists (CAMRT); delivered by Yardstick Testing and Training
Format
Computer-based multiple-choice examination; test centre or remote proctoring
Exam questions
Total questions: 185.
Time limit
4 hours
Passing score
Determined for the discipline by the Exam Validation Committee using a modified Angoff method; CAMRT does not release numerical marks.
Exam fee
January 2027 sitting: CAD 980 certification examination fee, plus CAD 88.63 plus applicable taxes for remote proctoring or CAD 171.75 plus applicable taxes for a test centre.

Topics covered

The authority publishes percentage ranges for each content area. The practice percentages below use the midpoint of each range, normalized to 100%; they are not exact percentages published by the authority. Practice question counts may differ slightly because of rounding.

  • Professional, Communicator and Collaborator — Official range: 5–10% (Practice allocation: 7.46%)

    • 1.1 Adhere to legal and regulatory requirements — Comply with federal and provincial legislation and regulations
    • 1.1 Adhere to legal and regulatory requirements — Maintain privacy and confidentiality in accordance with legislation
    • 1.1 Adhere to legal and regulatory requirements — Ensure ongoing informed consent to procedures
    • 1.2 Apply ethical principles — Practice within provincial regulatory or national association code of ethics
    • 1.2 Apply ethical principles — Practice within limits of professional knowledge, skills and judgement
    • 1.2 Apply ethical principles — Respect the dignity, privacy and autonomy of the patient
    • 1.2 Apply ethical principles — Maintain professional boundaries
    • 1.3 Demonstrate professional integrity — Use professional judgement and critical thinking to reach decisions
    • 1.5 Demonstrate social responsibility and cultural awareness — Provide care in an unbiased manner
    • 1.5 Demonstrate social responsibility and cultural awareness — Demonstrate sensitivity to the diversity of individuals
    • 1.5 Demonstrate social responsibility and cultural awareness — Provide care in a culturally safe manner
    • 2.1 Establish and maintain effective communication — Establish trust with patients and their families
    • 2.1 Establish and maintain effective communication — Explain complex and technical matters related to medical radiation technology to the level of the respondent's understanding
    • 2.1 Establish and maintain effective communication — Provide appropriate information about procedures to patients and support persons and verify understanding
    • 2.1 Establish and maintain effective communication — Adapt communication strategies to enhance interaction with patients and support persons
    • 2.1 Establish and maintain effective communication — Respond to questions from patients and support persons or direct them to appropriate resources
    • 2.2 Obtain, evaluate and share information — Identify clinically relevant details and respond
    • 2.2 Obtain, evaluate and share information — Provide accurate and timely updates to the care team, as appropriate
    • 2.2 Obtain, evaluate and share information — Maintain accurate and complete written and electronic documentation
    • 2.2 Obtain, evaluate and share information — Advise patients of necessary pre- and post-procedure care instructions
    • 3.1 Employ effective team processes to coordinate patient care — Demonstrate understanding of the roles of healthcare team members
    • 3.1 Employ effective team processes to coordinate patient care — Share MRT expertise with other healthcare professionals
    • 3.1 Employ effective team processes to coordinate patient care — Ensure appropriate transfer of care

  • Care Provider — Official range: 10–20% (Practice allocation: 14.93%)

    • 4.1 Practice in a manner that contributes to safe care — Verify patient identity
    • 4.1 Practice in a manner that contributes to safe care — Transport and transfer patients safely
    • 4.1 Practice in a manner that contributes to safe care — Use immobilization devices, as appropriate
    • 4.1 Practice in a manner that contributes to safe care — Ensure proper function of assistive devices and equipment provided by the facility
    • 4.1 Practice in a manner that contributes to safe care — Recognize and respond to medical emergencies
    • 4.2 Conduct relevant patient assessment in partnership with patients and families — Review clinical history provided relative to ordered procedure and address discrepancies
    • 4.2 Conduct relevant patient assessment in partnership with patients and families — Verify appropriateness of the procedure
    • 4.2 Conduct relevant patient assessment in partnership with patients and families — Assess patient for contraindications to procedure and respond
    • 4.2 Conduct relevant patient assessment in partnership with patients and families — Assess and respond to patient condition
    • 4.3 Provide compassionate care for patient’s physiological, cognitive and psychological needs — Monitor patient throughout procedure and respond as necessary
    • 4.3 Provide compassionate care for patient’s physiological, cognitive and psychological needs — Adapt positioning and/or protocol in response to patient condition and clinical environment
    • 4.3 Provide compassionate care for patient’s physiological, cognitive and psychological needs — Enhance patient comfort
    • 4.3 Provide compassionate care for patient’s physiological, cognitive and psychological needs — Provide patient interventions, as appropriate
    • 4.3 Provide compassionate care for patient’s physiological, cognitive and psychological needs — Recognize and adapt to individual patient needs
    • 4.4 Comply with appropriate infection prevention and control standards and/or regulations — Employ routine practices and additional precautions for infection prevention and control
    • 4.4 Comply with appropriate infection prevention and control standards and/or regulations — Employ appropriate procedure for patients with compromised immunity
    • 4.4 Comply with appropriate infection prevention and control standards and/or regulations — Apply standardized procedures for handling and disposing of sharps and contaminated and biohazardous materials
    • 4.5 Provide education and support to patients and families/support persons — Provide education related to procedure, risks and safe practices
    • 4.5 Provide education and support to patients and families/support persons — Provide an open and secure environment in which the patient can confide
    • 4.5 Provide education and support to patients and families/support persons — Provide education regarding management of expected treatment/procedure side effects

  • Integrate safe work principles and procedures into practice — Official range: 9–14% (Practice allocation: 11.44%)

    • Use protective devices, equipment, and apparel
    • Use proper body mechanics
    • Ensure a safe working environment
    • Adapt safety practices according to equipment type
    • Apply ALARA principle
    • Apply knowledge of radiation effects and risks
    • Monitor personal radiation exposure and respond
    • Recognize and respond to facility emergencies
    • Assess integrity of protective apparel and devices

  • Manage a variety of imaging systems — Official range: 5–10% (Practice allocation: 7.46%)

    • Apply knowledge of radiation physics
    • Apply knowledge of the operational components of imaging systems to optimize images and data
    • Use accessory equipment
    • Operate imaging systems
    • Use digital networking and archiving system
    • Recognize and respond to emergencies involving equipment
    • Participate in a repeat/reject analysis program
    • Assess performance of imaging systems and respond

  • Integrate clinical principles, perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, and administer substances — Official range: 27–32% (Practice allocation: 29.35%)

    • RTR.3 Integrate clinical principles into practice — Apply knowledge of cross-sectional/relational anatomy and physiology as they relate to clinical procedures
    • RTR.3 Integrate clinical principles into practice — Apply knowledge of pathophysiology as it relates to clinical procedures
    • RTR.3 Integrate clinical principles into practice — Apply knowledge of imaging procedures and protocols in various clinical environments
    • RTR.3 Integrate clinical principles into practice — Apply knowledge of other imaging and therapeutic modalities
    • RTR.4 Perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures — Plan imaging procedure using relevant clinical data
    • RTR.4 Perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures — Prepare patient
    • RTR.4 Perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures — Position patient for imaging procedures using anatomical landmarks and knowledge of relational anatomy
    • RTR.4 Perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures — Align imaging system to demonstrate required anatomical structure(s)
    • RTR.4 Perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures — Adapt imaging protocol in response to findings on the image
    • RTR.4 Perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures — Select and optimize imaging parameters
    • RTR.4 Perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures — Perform procedures in operating room and mobile (point of care) environments
    • RTR.4 Perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures — Verify acquired data is accurate and complete
    • RTR.5 Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Perform venipuncture
    • RTR.5 Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Prepare pharmaceutical agents
    • RTR.5 Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Apply knowledge of the effects of pharmaceutical agents
    • RTR.5 Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Administer pharmaceuticals via appropriate route
    • RTR.5 Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Prepare contrast agents
    • RTR.5 Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Apply knowledge of the effects of contrast agents
    • RTR.5 Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Administer contrast agents via appropriate route
    • RTR.5 Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Recognize and respond to adverse reactions
    • RTR.5 Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Perform rectal tube insertion
    • RTR.5 Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Prepare sterile trays

  • Analyze image and data quality and respond — Official range: 27–32% (Practice allocation: 29.35%)

    • Apply knowledge of principles affecting image quality
    • Differentiate anatomical structures on images
    • Evaluate images for normal results and variants
    • Recognize common pathologies, anomalies, and conditions
    • Ensure accuracy of markers and annotation
    • Evaluate images for artifacts and respond
    • Evaluate technical factors in image quality
    • Determine if further images are required
    • Perform post-acquisition processing

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Computer-based multiple-choice examination; test centre or remote proctoring

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 185.

How long is the exam?

4 hours

What is the passing score?

Determined for the discipline by the Exam Validation Committee using a modified Angoff method; CAMRT does not release numerical marks.

How much does the exam cost?

January 2027 sitting: CAD 980 certification examination fee, plus CAD 88.63 plus applicable taxes for remote proctoring or CAD 171.75 plus applicable taxes for a test centre.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.