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Free CAMRT Radiation Therapy National Certification Examination Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the CAMRT Radiation Therapy National Certification Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1Before radiotherapy, the therapist confirms that a patient received an explanation of the treatment's benefits, risks and alternatives. Which element of valid consent is being checked?

    1. A.Voluntary
    2. B.Specific
    3. C.InformedCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Capability

    Explanation: CAMRT identifies the relevant element as “Informed: The patient must receive full disclosure of all relevant information.” Voluntariness concerns freedom from coercion, specificity concerns the procedure, and capability concerns competence to consent.

    Reference: CAMRT Best Practice Guidelines: Informed consent — 01.02.03, What is informed consent?

  2. 2Before a radiation therapy treatment, a therapist checks a patient's identity using person-specific identifiers. According to CAMRT guidance, what is the minimum number of identifiers needed?

    1. A.One identifier
    2. B.Two identifiersCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Three identifiers
    4. D.Four identifiers

    Explanation: CAMRT states that “at least two person-specific identifiers are to be used” to confirm the intended procedure, test or treatment. Two is therefore the minimum in this guidance; a higher number may be used but is not the minimum.

    Reference: CAMRT Best Practice Guidelines: Patient identification — 01.02.01, Patient identification in practice

  3. 3During a brachytherapy source survey, a therapist measures 8 µSv/h at 1 m from a pointlike source. Assuming negligible scatter and no change in shielding, what dose rate is expected at 2 m?

    1. A.2 µSv/hCorrect answer: A
    2. B.4 µSv/h
    3. C.8 µSv/h
    4. D.16 µSv/h

    Explanation: Natural Resources Canada states that “doubling the distance from the source reduces the dose or dose rate to 1/4”. Thus, 8 µSv/h × 1/4 = 2 µSv/h. The other values result from using an inverse-distance factor (4), ignoring the distance change (8), or multiplying by the distance ratio (16).

    Reference: Natural Resources Canada X-ray Fluorescence Radiation Safety Examination Preparation Booklet — page 40, Distance

  4. 4A radiation therapist reviews a prostate treatment record showing that radioactive sources were placed directly within the tumour. Which technique was used?

    1. A.Intracavity brachytherapy
    2. B.Episcleral brachytherapy
    3. C.Interstitial brachytherapyCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Radioembolization

    Explanation: The National Cancer Institute describes “Interstitial brachytherapy, in which the radiation source is placed within the tumor.” Intracavity placement uses a cavity, episcleral placement attaches a source to the eye, and radioembolization delivers radioactive beads into a blood vessel.

    Reference: National Cancer Institute: Brachytherapy to Treat Cancer — How brachytherapy is put in place, techniques

  5. 5During a weekly chart check, a therapist reviews a plan prescribing 50 Gy in 25 equal fractions. The record confirms that 12 fractions have been delivered. What cumulative dose should the record show?

    1. A.12 Gy
    2. B.24 GyCorrect answer: B
    3. C.26 Gy
    4. D.50 Gy

    Explanation: The National Cancer Institute defines fractionation as “dividing a total dose of radiation or chemotherapy into separate doses”. Here each fraction is 50 Gy ÷ 25 = 2 Gy, so 12 completed fractions deliver 12 × 2 Gy = 24 Gy. The other results come from treating the fraction count as the dose (12 Gy), counting the next fraction (26 Gy), or recording the full prescription as already delivered (50 Gy).

    Reference: National Cancer Institute Dictionary of Cancer Terms: Fractionation — Definition of fractionation

  6. 6To make a personalised head-and-neck mask, a therapist warms a firm perforated sheet in water until it is pliable, moulds it to the patient, and allows it to become firm again. Which immobilisation material is being used?

    1. A.Plaster of Paris
    2. B.Polyurethane foam
    3. C.ThermoplasticCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Polystyrene beads

    Explanation: Oxford University Hospitals describes a shell made from “a perforated sheet of thermoplastic” and states that the plastic is “heated in warm water so that it becomes soft and pliable”. It is moulded while warm and then becomes firm.

    Reference: Oxford University Hospitals: Radiotherapy Pre-treatment — Moulds/shells/mask

  7. 7A therapist helps plan photon treatment for a patient with a cardiac implantable electronic device. To reduce possible neutron damage, what is the highest threshold below which CAMRT guidance recommends keeping the photon energy?

    1. A.4 MV
    2. B.6 MV
    3. C.10 MVCorrect answer: C
    4. D.15 MV

    Explanation: CAMRT states, “Photon energy should be kept to less than 10MV to avoid possible neutron damage to the CIED.” The guidance's stated threshold is 10 MV; energies below 4 or 6 MV are stricter limits, while a 15 MV threshold would permit energies above the recommended bound.

    Reference: CAMRT Best Practice Guidelines: Patients with CIEDs — 03.03.02, Planning

  8. 8A megavoltage photon interacts with an essentially free orbital electron. The electron recoils, and a photon leaves in a different direction with reduced energy. Which interaction occurred?

    1. A.Coherent scattering
    2. B.Pair production
    3. C.Photoelectric absorption
    4. D.Compton scatteringCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The IAEA states that in the Compton effect “The photon loses part of its energy to the recoil (Compton) electron” and the photon is scattered. The other options describe distinct photon interactions; they do not match this combination of a recoil electron and a lower-energy scattered photon.

    Reference: IAEA Radiation Oncology Physics: A Handbook for Teachers and Students — section 1.4.6, Compton effect

  9. 9An Ontario radiation therapist helps the health information custodian respond to requests for a patient's treatment information. The clinical professionals below are custodians providing the patient's care; the insurer is not a custodian. The patient has not withheld consent, and no statutory exception permitting disclosure without consent applies. Which recipient requires express consent under PHIPA?

    1. A.The patient's private insurerCorrect answer: A
    2. B.The patient's treating oncologist
    3. C.The patient's community pharmacist
    4. D.The patient's consulting physician

    Explanation: Ontario's Information and Privacy Commissioner states that, absent a permitted exception, “express consent is required if” information is disclosed to “an insurance company, that is not a custodian”. The clinical professionals in this scenario are involved in providing the patient's care, for which the circle-of-care rules may permit assumed implied consent.

    Reference: Information and Privacy Commissioner of Ontario: Consent and personal health information — What is express consent and when is it required?

  10. 10During a radiotherapy assessment, a patient reports being able to manage all personal care but unable to work. The patient is up and about for more than half of waking hours. What is the ECOG performance status?

    1. A.Grade 0
    2. B.Grade 1
    3. C.Grade 2Correct answer: C
    4. D.Grade 3

    Explanation: The ECOG-ACRIN scale defines grade 2 as “Ambulatory and capable of all selfcare but unable to carry out any work activities; up and about more than 50% of waking hours”. Grades 0 and 1 retain greater activity or work ability; grade 3 involves limited self-care and confinement for more than half of waking hours.

    Reference: ECOG-ACRIN Cancer Research Group: ECOG Performance Status Scale — ECOG Performance Status Scale, grade 2

Exam Review

About CAMRT Radiation Therapy National Certification Examination

CAMRT Radiation Therapy National Certification Examination · CA

Key exam facts

Exam questions
Total questions: 185.

Topics covered

The authority publishes percentage ranges for each content area. The practice percentages below use the midpoint of each range, normalized to 100%; they are not exact percentages published by the authority. Practice question counts may differ slightly because of rounding.

  • Professional, Communicator and Collaborator — Official range: 5–10% (Practice allocation: 7.46%)

    • Comply with federal and provincial legislation and regulations.
    • Maintain privacy and confidentiality in accordance with legislation.
    • Ensure ongoing informed consent to procedures.
    • Practice within provincial regulatory or national association code of ethics.
    • Practice within limits of professional knowledge, skills and judgement.
    • Respect the dignity, privacy and autonomy of the patient.
    • Maintain professional boundaries.
    • Use professional judgement and critical thinking to reach decisions.
    • Provide care in an unbiased manner.
    • Demonstrate sensitivity to the diversity of individuals.
    • Provide care in a culturally safe manner.
    • Establish trust with patients and their families.
    • Explain complex and technical matters related to medical radiation technology to the level of the respondent's understanding.
    • Provide appropriate information about procedures to patients and support persons and verify understanding.
    • Adapt communication strategies to enhance interaction with patients and support persons.
    • Respond to questions from patients and support persons or direct them to appropriate resources.
    • Identify clinically relevant details and respond.
    • Provide accurate and timely updates to the care team, as appropriate.
    • Maintain accurate and complete written and electronic documentation.
    • Advise patients of necessary pre- and post-procedure care instructions.
    • Demonstrate understanding of the roles of healthcare team members.
    • Share MRT expertise with other healthcare professionals.
    • Ensure appropriate transfer of care.

  • Care Provider — Official range: 10–20% (Practice allocation: 14.93%)

    • Verify patient identity.
    • Transport and transfer patients safely.
    • Use immobilization devices, as appropriate.
    • Ensure proper function of assistive devices and equipment provided by the facility.
    • Recognize and respond to medical emergencies.
    • Review clinical history provided relative to ordered procedure and address discrepancies.
    • Verify appropriateness of the procedure.
    • Assess patient for contraindications to procedure and respond.
    • Assess and respond to patient condition.
    • Monitor patient throughout procedure and respond as necessary.
    • Adapt positioning and/or protocol in response to patient condition and clinical environment.
    • Enhance patient comfort.
    • Provide patient interventions, as appropriate.
    • Recognize and adapt to individual patient needs.
    • Employ routine practices and additional precautions for infection prevention and control.
    • Employ appropriate procedure for patients with compromised immunity.
    • Apply standardized procedures for handling and disposing of sharps and contaminated and biohazardous materials.
    • Provide education related to procedure, risks and safe practices.
    • Provide an open and secure environment in which the patient can confide.
    • Provide education regarding management of expected treatment/procedure side effects.
    • Provide education on health and nutrition.
    • Develop and implement individualized patient care plan.
    • Refer patient to supportive services, where appropriate.
    • Adjust patient’s care using accepted assessment methods.

  • Integrate safe work principles and procedures into practice. — Official range: 10–20% (Practice allocation: 14.93%)

    • Use protective devices, equipment, and apparel.
    • Use proper body mechanics.
    • Ensure a safe working environment.
    • Adapt safety practices according to equipment type.
    • Apply ALARA principle.
    • Apply knowledge of radiation effects and risks.
    • Monitor personal radiation exposure and respond.
    • Recognize and respond to radiation emergencies.
    • Use radiation detection devices.
    • Recognize and respond to facility emergencies.

  • Manage a variety of imaging and treatment systems. — Official range: 5–10% (Practice allocation: 7.46%)

    • Incorporate knowledge of established radiation therapy modalities.
    • Conduct quality assurance tests using appropriate equipment.
    • Operate radiation therapy planning equipment.
    • Operate radiation therapy treatment equipment.
    • Describe basic principles of brachytherapy treatment equipment.
    • Assess and respond to variances in the performance of radiation therapy equipment.
    • Use digital networking and archiving system.

  • Manage individual care plans. — Official range: 3–12% (Practice allocation: 7.46%)

    • Conduct weekly quality assurance on individual care plans.
    • Assess images for pathology and conditions impacting care.

  • Develop optimal strategy for radiation therapy pre-treatment procedures. — Official range: 5–15% (Practice allocation: 9.95%)

    • Determine optimal patient position and immobilization.
    • Construct and/or use custom immobilization devices.
    • Determine optimal imaging acquisition parameters.
    • Appraise results of pre-treatment procedures.
    • Perform reference-marking procedure to patient and custom immobilization devices.

  • Design optimal radiation therapy plans. — Official range: 5–10% (Practice allocation: 7.46%)

    • Perform multi-modality image fusion as required.
    • Verify appropriate delineation of target volumes.
    • Validate dose and fractionation based on radiobiological and clinical oncology principles.
    • Contour appropriate structures.
    • Create beam arrangements consistent with dose-limiting practices and equipment limitations.
    • Apply protocol requirements for clinical trials as required.
    • Employ beam-modification devices and techniques in order to optimize distribution.
    • Perform manual calculations for treatment procedures.
    • Produce beam modification devices.
    • Modify plan during treatment course as required.
    • Evaluate dosimetric treatment plans.
    • Appraise treatment plans for brachytherapy.

  • Deliver prescribed radiation therapy; Integrate clinical principles into practice; Administer substances required for clinical procedures — Official range: 24–37% (Practice allocation: 30.35%)

    • Confirm readiness for treatment.
    • Reproduce planned patient treatment position.
    • Select appropriate imaging for procedure.
    • Prepare imaging devices.
    • Acquire images.
    • Assess optimized images for patient position, isocenter localization, and volume match.
    • Make treatment decisions based on results of image assessment and protocols.
    • Employ motion management procedures and devices as required.
    • Justify the decision to implement treatment.
    • Administer prescribed radiation therapy.
    • Justify appropriate treatment for malignant, non-malignant, and benign conditions.
    • Apply knowledge of clinical oncology concepts to diseases and conditions.
    • Apply knowledge of the effects of pharmacologic agents as they relate to therapeutic procedures.
    • Apply knowledge of cross-sectional/relational anatomy and physiology as they relate to clinical procedures.
    • Apply knowledge of pathophysiology as it relates to clinical procedures.
    • Apply knowledge of radiobiology.
    • Apply knowledge of radiation physics.
    • Apply knowledge of other imaging and therapeutic modalities.
    • Perform venipuncture.
    • Prepare contrast agents.
    • Recognize and respond to adverse reactions.
    • Apply knowledge of the effects of contrast agents.
    • Administer contrast agents via appropriate route.
    • Assist with the administration of pharmaceuticals.

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 185.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.