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Free CAMRT Nuclear Medicine Certification Examination Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the CAMRT Nuclear Medicine Certification Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1Before a nuclear medicine examination, a capable patient understands the proposed procedure but says a relative is pressuring them to agree. Which element of valid informed consent is directly in question?

    1. A.Capability
    2. B.Specificity
    3. C.VoluntarinessCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Disclosure

    Explanation: CAMRT states that "The patient must be free of any suggestion of duress or coercion" when giving consent. Pressure from a relative therefore calls voluntariness into question; the scenario separately states that the patient is capable and understands the proposed procedure.

    Reference: CAMRT Best Practice Guidelines: Informed consent — 01.02.03, What is informed consent?

  2. 2Before a nuclear medicine scan, a technologist checks a patient's identity against the requisition. Under CAMRT's patient identification guideline, what is the minimum number of person-specific identifiers required?

    1. A.One identifier
    2. B.Two identifiersCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Three identifiers
    4. D.Four identifiers

    Explanation: CAMRT states that "at least two person-specific identifiers are to be used" to confirm the intended care. Two is therefore the minimum; three or four would exceed the minimum, and one would fall short.

    Reference: CAMRT Best Practice Guidelines: Patient identification — 01.02.01, Patient identification in practice

  3. 3A technologist consults the CNSC recommended-applications table when choosing a handheld contamination monitor for technetium-99m. Which detector is paired with low-energy gamma emitters below 200 keV in that table?

    1. A.Thin-crystal sodium iodide detectorCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Thick-crystal sodium iodide detector
    3. C.Gas-filled proportional detector
    4. D.Zinc sulphide scintillation detector

    Explanation: The CNSC table pairs "Thin-crystal sodium iodide scintillation detector" with "Low-energy gamma emitters (<200 keV)". It pairs thick-crystal sodium iodide with higher-energy gamma emitters, zinc sulphide with alpha emitters, and directs users to manufacturer specifications for gas-filled proportional detectors.

    Reference: CNSC Radioisotope Safety: Monitoring for Radioactive Contamination — 2.10, Hand-held contamination monitoring instrument recommended applications

  4. 4A technologist needs to evaluate gamma-camera flood-field uniformity with the collimator in place. Which quality-control test matches that setup?

    1. A.Intrinsic uniformity
    2. B.Extrinsic linearity
    3. C.Extrinsic uniformityCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Intrinsic linearity

    Explanation: The IAEA describes uniformity testing "with a collimator (extrinsic)". The requested test therefore is extrinsic uniformity; an intrinsic uniformity test omits the collimator, while linearity is a different image-quality characteristic.

    Reference: IAEA Nuclear Medicine Resources Manual — Chapter 4, section on gamma camera uniformity, page 122

  5. 5Quality control of a technetium-99m generator eluate detects molybdenum-99 breakthrough. Which quality characteristic does this finding directly assess?

    1. A.Chemical purity
    2. B.Radionuclidic purityCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Radiochemical purity
    4. D.Microbiological sterility

    Explanation: CAMRT identifies "99Mo breakthrough" as an example of a radionuclide impurity. It affects radionuclidic purity; chemical and radiochemical impurities concern different forms of contamination, while sterility concerns viable microorganisms.

    Reference: CAMRT Best Practice Guidelines: Radiopharmaceutical quality control — Parameters to be assessed, radionuclidic purity

  6. 6A radiopharmaceutical has a physical half-life of 6 hours and a biological clearance half-life of 12 hours in one compartment. Assuming each process follows a single exponential, what is the effective half-life?

    1. A.3 hours
    2. B.4 hoursCorrect answer: B
    3. C.9 hours
    4. D.18 hours

    Explanation: The IAEA states that effective half-life is "calculated by combining both the physical decay and the biological clearance". Using Teff = (Tp × Tb) / (Tp + Tb), (6 h × 12 h) / (6 h + 12 h) = 4 h. Three hours comes from incorrectly using 6 h for both inputs, nine from averaging them, and eighteen from adding them.

    Reference: IAEA Guidance for Preclinical Studies with Radiopharmaceuticals — Section 6.1.2, Pharmacokinetic modelling, equation 6, page 37

  7. 7During simultaneous dual-radionuclide imaging, photons emitted at the higher energy are scattered and recorded in the lower-energy window. What is this effect called?

    1. A.Photon attenuation
    2. B.Photon downscatterCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Random coincidence
    4. D.Dead-time counting

    Explanation: The IAEA describes "scatter from the higher energy photons into the energy window used for lower energy photons" as downscatter. Attenuation, random coincidence and dead time are other physical effects; they do not name this cross-window effect.

    Reference: IAEA Nuclear Medicine Resources Manual — Section 5.1.3.2, Dual radionuclide studies, page 168

  8. 8After a technologist explains a planned scan, a capable patient chooses to decline it. Which ethical principle most directly supports honoring the patient's choice?

    1. A.Beneficence
    2. B.AutonomyCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Justice
    4. D.Non-maleficence

    Explanation: CAMRT describes informed consent as emphasizing "patient autonomy". Respecting a capable patient's decision is an application of autonomy; beneficence concerns promoting welfare, non-maleficence avoiding harm, and justice equitable treatment.

    Reference: CAMRT Best Practice Guidelines: Informed consent — 01.02.03, What is informed consent?

  9. 9A breastfeeding patient asks about interruption of breastfeeding after a nuclear medicine study. Which radiopharmaceutical is listed by CAMRT among those for which a brief interruption is advised?

    1. A.67Ga-citrate
    2. B.123I-MIBG
    3. C.99mTc-MAACorrect answer: C
    4. D.131I-NaI

    Explanation: CAMRT lists "99mTc-macroaggregated albumin" under "Brief interruption (hours to days)"; 99mTc-MAA is its abbreviation. The other listed agents appear in its separate complete-cessation group; patient-specific advice should follow the applicable protocol.

    Reference: CAMRT Best Practice Guidelines: Breastfeeding and lactation in nuclear medicine — Precautions for breastfeeding individuals

  10. 10A small sealed gamma source can be treated as a point source. Its dose rate is 0.40 mSv/h at 1 m. Neglecting shielding, scatter and decay, what dose rate is expected at 2 m?

    1. A.0.05 mSv/h
    2. B.0.10 mSv/hCorrect answer: B
    3. C.0.20 mSv/h
    4. D.0.40 mSv/h

    Explanation: The IAEA states that for a point source the dose rate is "in inverse proportion to the square of the distance". Thus 0.40 mSv/h × (1 m / 2 m)² = 0.10 mSv/h. Dividing by eight gives 0.05, using inverse distance gives 0.20, and neglecting the distance change gives 0.40 mSv/h.

    Reference: IAEA Nuclear Medicine in Thyroid Cancer Management: A Practical Approach — Section 12.7, Minimisation of radiation exposure, page 134

Exam Review

About CAMRT Nuclear Medicine Certification Examination

CAMRT Nuclear Medicine Certification Examination · CA

Key exam facts

Exam questions
Total questions: 185.

Topics covered

The authority publishes percentage ranges for each content area. The practice percentages below use the midpoint of each range, normalized to 100%; they are not exact percentages published by the authority. Practice question counts may differ slightly because of rounding.

  • Professional, Communicator and Collaborator — Official range: 5–10% (Practice allocation: 7.5%)

    • Adhere to legal and regulatory requirements. Enabling competencies: 1.1.2 Comply with federal and provincial legislation and regulations; 1.1.4 Maintain privacy and confidentiality in accordance with legislation; 1.1.5 Ensure ongoing informed consent to procedures.
    • Apply ethical principles. Enabling competencies: 1.2.1 Practice within provincial regulatory or national association code of ethics; 1.2.2 Practice within limits of professional knowledge, skills and judgement; 1.2.3 Respect the dignity, privacy and autonomy of the patient; 1.2.4 Maintain professional boundaries.
    • Demonstrate professional integrity. Enabling competencies: 1.3.3 Use professional judgement and critical thinking to reach decisions.
    • Demonstrate social responsibility and cultural awareness. Enabling competencies: 1.5.1 Provide care in an unbiased manner; 1.5.2 Demonstrate sensitivity to the diversity of individuals; 1.5.3 Provide care in a culturally safe manner.
    • Establish and maintain effective communication. Enabling competencies: 2.1.1 Establish trust with patients and their families; 2.1.5 Explain complex and technical matters related to medical radiation technology to the level of the respondent's understanding; 2.1.6 Provide appropriate information about procedures to patients and support persons and verify understanding; 2.1.7 Adapt communication strategies to enhance interaction with patients and support persons; 2.1.8 Respond to questions from patients and support persons or direct them to appropriate resources.
    • Obtain, evaluate and share information. Enabling competencies: 2.2.2 Identify clinically relevant details and respond; 2.2.3 Provide accurate and timely updates to the care team, as appropriate; 2.2.4 Maintain accurate and complete written and electronic documentation; 2.2.5 Advise patients of necessary pre- and post-procedure care instructions.
    • Employ effective team processes to coordinate patient care. Enabling competencies: 3.1.1 Demonstrate understanding of the roles of healthcare team members; 3.1.2 Share MRT expertise with other healthcare professionals; 3.1.5 Ensure appropriate transfer of care.

  • Care Provider — Official range: 10–20% (Practice allocation: 15%)

    • Practice in a manner that contributes to safe care. Enabling competencies: 4.1.1 Verify patient identity; 4.1.2 Transport and transfer patients safely; 4.1.3 Use immobilization devices, as appropriate; 4.1.4 Ensure proper function of assistive devices and equipment provided by the facility; 4.1.5 Recognize and respond to medical emergencies.
    • Conduct relevant patient assessment in partnership with patients and families. Enabling competencies: 4.2.1 Review clinical history provided relative to ordered procedure and address discrepancies; 4.2.2 Verify appropriateness of the procedure; 4.2.3 Assess patient for contraindications to procedure and respond; 4.2.4 Assess and respond to patient condition.
    • Provide compassionate care for patient’s physiological, cognitive and psychological needs. Enabling competencies: 4.3.1 Monitor patient throughout procedure and respond as necessary; 4.3.2 Adapt positioning and/or protocol in response to patient condition and clinical environment; 4.3.3 Enhance patient comfort; 4.3.4 Provide patient interventions, as appropriate; 4.3.5 Recognize and adapt to individual patient needs.
    • Comply with appropriate infection prevention and control standards and/or regulations. Enabling competencies: 4.4.1 Employ routine practices and additional precautions for infection prevention and control; 4.4.2 Employ appropriate procedure for patients with compromised immunity; 4.4.3 Apply standardized procedures for handling and disposing of sharps and contaminated and biohazardous materials.
    • Provide education and support to patients and families/support persons. Enabling competencies: 4.5.1 Provide education related to procedure, risks and safe practices; 4.5.2 Provide an open and secure environment in which the patient can confide; 4.5.3 Provide education regarding management of expected treatment/procedure side effects.

  • Safety and radiation safety — Official range: 9–18% (Practice allocation: 13.5%)

    • Integrate safe work principles and procedures into practice. Enabling competencies: NM.1.1 Use protective devices, equipment, and apparel; NM.1.2 Use proper body mechanics; NM.1.3 Ensure a safe working environment; NM.1.4 Adapt safety practices according to equipment type; NM.1.5 Apply ALARA principle; NM.1.6 Apply knowledge of radiation effects and risks; NM.1.7 Monitor personal radiation exposure and respond; NM.1.8 Use radiation detection devices; NM.1.9 Assess integrity of protective apparel and devices; NM.1.10 Recognize and respond to facility emergencies.
    • Integrate radiation safety principles and procedures into practice. Enabling competencies: NM.2.1 Ship and receive nuclear materials; NM.2.2 Manage inventory of nuclear material; NM.2.3 Perform radiation monitoring and evaluate results; NM.2.4 Perform leak testing for sealed sources; NM.2.5 Perform area commissioning and decommissioning; NM.2.6 Respond to a radioactive spill; NM.2.7 Recognize and respond to radiation emergencies.

  • Imaging systems — Official range: 10–20% (Practice allocation: 15%)

    • Manage a variety of imaging systems. Enabling competencies: NM.3.1 Apply knowledge of radiation physics; NM.3.2 Apply knowledge of operational components of imaging systems to optimize images and data; NM.3.3 Perform quality control procedures; NM.3.4 Use accessory equipment; NM.3.5 Respond to emergencies involving equipment; NM.3.6 Use digital networking and archiving system; NM.3.7 Operate imaging systems.

  • Radiopharmacy and laboratory procedures — Official range: 6–12% (Practice allocation: 9%)

    • Perform radiopharmacy and laboratory procedures. Enabling competencies: NM.4.1 Ensure correct storage of radiopharmaceuticals, generators, non-radioactive supplies, and kits; NM.4.2 Schedule generator elutions to meet kit requirements and department needs based off of predicted generator yield; NM.4.3 Perform generator elution; NM.4.4 Perform generator eluate quality control; NM.4.5 Perform radiopharmaceutical kit reconstitution; NM.4.6 Perform radiopharmaceutical quality control; NM.4.7 Radiolabel autologous red blood cells; NM.4.8 Radiolabel autologous leukocytes; NM.4.9 Dispense radiopharmaceuticals safely and accurately; NM.4.10 Prepare standard / stock solutions.

  • Clinical principles, substance administration, diagnostic and therapeutic procedures — Official range: 21–35% (Practice allocation: 28%)

    • Integrate clinical principles into practice. Enabling competencies: NM.5.1 Apply knowledge of cross-sectional/relational anatomy and physiology as they relate to clinical procedures; NM.5.2 Apply knowledge of pathophysiology as it relates to clinical procedures; NM.5.3 Apply knowledge of the effects of pharmacologic and dietary agents as they relate to clinical procedures; NM.5.4 Apply knowledge of other imaging and therapeutic modalities.
    • Administer substances required for clinical procedures. Enabling competencies: NM.6.1 Perform venipuncture; NM.6.2 Prepare pharmaceutical agents; NM.6.3 Apply knowledge of the effects of pharmaceutical agents; NM.6.4 Administer pharmaceuticals via appropriate route; NM.6.5 Prepare contrast agents; NM.6.6 Apply knowledge of the effects of contrast agents; NM.6.7 Administer contrast agents via appropriate route; NM.6.8 Recognize and respond to adverse reactions; NM.6.9 Prepare sterile trays.
    • Perform diagnostic and therapeutic procedures. Enabling competencies: NM.7.1 Plan diagnostic procedure using all relevant clinical data; NM.7.2 Plan therapy procedure using all relevant clinical data; NM.7.3 Prepare patient; NM.7.4 Position patient using anatomical landmarks and knowledge of relational anatomy, to best demonstrate anatomical structures / pathologies; NM.7.5 Administer, or assist with administration of, required radiopharmaceutical or radiation dose in accordance with protocol; NM.7.6 Select and optimize imaging parameters; NM.7.7 Verify acquired data is accurate and complete.

  • Image and data quality — Official range: 9–15% (Practice allocation: 12%)

    • Analyze image and data quality and respond. Enabling competencies: NM.8.1 Apply knowledge of principles affecting image quality; NM.8.2 Determine if further images and/or data are required; NM.8.3 Perform post-acquisition processing; NM.8.4 Differentiate anatomical structures on images; NM.8.5 Evaluate images for normal results and variants; NM.8.6 Recognize common pathologies, anomalies, and conditions; NM.8.7 Evaluate images for artifacts and respond; NM.8.8 Ensure accuracy of markers and annotation.

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 185.

Official sources and references

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