Free CAMRT Magnetic Resonance Certification Examination Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the CAMRT Magnetic Resonance Certification Examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1At a private MRI clinic subject to PIPEDA, a patient asks to inspect personal health information held by the clinic and challenge an inaccuracy. Which fair information principle addresses the patient's right to make that request?

   1. A.Accuracy of personal information
   2. B.Safeguards for personal information
   3. C.Individual access to informationCorrect answer: C
   4. D.Limiting collection of information

   Explanation: The Office of the Privacy Commissioner describes individual access: "They also have the right to challenge the accuracy and completeness of the information, and have that information amended as appropriate." The request concerns the patient's access and challenge rights. Accuracy addresses the quality of information used; safeguards address protection, and limiting collection addresses what is collected.

   Reference: PIPEDA Fair Information Principle 9 – Individual Access — Individual Access, introductory paragraph

2. 2An adult patient collapses outside the MRI scanner room. A technologist trained in CPR provides compressions and breaths while an emergency team is called. Before an advanced airway is placed, what compression-to-breath ratio does the 2025 Heart & Stroke guidance recommend?

   1. A.3:1
   2. B.5:1
   3. C.15:2
   4. D.30:2Correct answer: D

   Explanation: The 2025 guidance recommends CPR in "cycles of 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths" before an advanced airway is placed. The other ratios are found in earlier resuscitation recommendations for different age groups or past practice, but they do not match this current adult recommendation.

   Reference: Heart & Stroke 2025 Guidelines for CPR and ECC at a Glance — Adult Basic Life Support, Compression-to-Ventilation Ratio

3. 3A technologist is orienting a new staff member to the ACR four-zone model in a conventional MRI suite. Which zone contains the scanner room?

   1. A.Zone I
   2. B.Zone II
   3. C.Zone III
   4. D.Zone IVCorrect answer: D

   Explanation: The ACR manual identifies "Zone IV (i .e., the MR scanner room)". The scanner room is therefore Zone IV; Zones I, II, and III designate other areas in the four-zone model.

   Reference: ACR Manual on MR Safety — Chapter 3, Zone IV, page 22

4. 4A patient arrives in an MR Conditional transport chair. Its verified label permits use at an outer bore position with a spatial field gradient of at most 3,000 G/cm, and all other label conditions are satisfied. Four possible transfer positions have measured gradients of 720, 2,000, 4,000 and 5,000 G/cm. What is the highest of these measured gradients at which the chair's stated condition is met?

   1. A.720 G/cm
   2. B.2,000 G/cmCorrect answer: B
   3. C.4,000 G/cm
   4. D.5,000 G/cm

   Explanation: The chair's manufacturer's instructions specify a "Spatial gradient field of 3,000 Gauss/cm or less at the outermost end of the magnet bore." Both 720 and 2,000 G/cm meet that condition, but 2,000 is the higher of the two. The other values exceed the limit. All other conditions on the verified label must also be met.

   Reference: MR Conditional Transport Chair Manufacturer Instructions — Indications for Use, MR Conditional conditions

5. 5An MRI sequence runs for 8 minutes at a constant estimated whole-body SAR of 1.5 W/kg. Assuming no other sequences, what is the estimated specific energy dose for this sequence in kJ/kg?

   1. A.0.012 kJ/kg
   2. B.0.72 kJ/kgCorrect answer: B
   3. C.7.2 kJ/kg
   4. D.720 kJ/kg

   Explanation: The manufacturer explains, "SED is equal to SAR multiplied by scan time". Eight minutes is 480 seconds, so 1.5 J/(s·kg) × 480 s = 720 J/kg = 0.72 kJ/kg. The 0.012 result treats 8 minutes as 8 seconds; 7.2 divides joules by 100 instead of 1,000; 720 reports the joule value as kilojoules.

   Reference: Philips MRI patient safety — Potential hazards associated with RF energy

6. 6For a brain MRI, a technologist selects a conventional fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) acquisition to improve visibility near the ventricles. Which normal signal is the inversion recovery preparation designed to suppress?

   1. A.Cerebral arterial blood
   2. B.Cerebrospinal fluidCorrect answer: B
   3. C.Cerebral white matter
   4. D.Cerebral grey matter

   Explanation: The MRI research article describes FLAIR as a method that "suppresses the signal from CSF by acquiring data at its null point following an inversion pulse". CSF is the intended signal to suppress in this preparation; the other options are not its specified target.

   Reference: Non-invasive MRI of choroid plexus-cerebrospinal fluid water exchange using multi-TE FLAIR — Introduction, FLAIR description

7. 7On an axial abdominal MR image, anatomy extending beyond a small field of view appears folded onto the opposite side of the image. Which artifact should the technologist identify?

   1. A.Motion ghosting
   2. B.Geometric distortion
   3. C.Aliasing artifactCorrect answer: C
   4. D.RF zipper artifact

   Explanation: The ACR describes aliasing: "The image appears wrapped around into itself. This is due to a large body portion included in a too small FOV." That matches the observed foldover. Ghosting, geometric distortion and RF zipper describe different image effects.

   Reference: ACR Clinical Image Testing: MRI — Category D: Image Artifacts, Aliasing

8. 8A patient agreed to a scheduled noncontrast MRI. Before imaging begins, the care team proposes changing to a contrast-enhanced study. Which element of consent means that the technologist must confirm agreement to the changed procedure?

   1. A.Capacity
   2. B.Voluntariness
   3. C.SpecificityCorrect answer: C
   4. D.Understanding

   Explanation: CAMRT states that "The consent request must be specific to the procedure, test or treatment being performed". Agreement to the original procedure does not automatically authorize the changed one. Capacity, voluntariness and understanding are separate elements that also matter to valid consent.

   Reference: CAMRT Best Practice Guidelines: Informed Consent — What is informed consent?

9. 9After moving a patient, an MRI technologist has visibly soiled hands and washes with soap and water. Under WHO guidance, what is the recommended duration of the entire handwashing procedure?

   1. A.10–15 seconds
   2. B.20–30 seconds
   3. C.40–60 secondsCorrect answer: C
   4. D.120–180 seconds

   Explanation: WHO recommends "soap and water for 40-60 seconds" for the handwashing procedure. The 20–30 second range is the WHO duration for alcohol-based handrub; the other ranges do not match the specified soap-and-water procedure.

   Reference: WHO: Promote hand hygiene to enhance the safety and quality of health care facilities — First: five moments for hand hygiene

10. 10A ferromagnetic object pins a patient against a superconducting MRI scanner. The patient faces imminent serious injury and cannot be safely freed while the field remains active. Which emergency control should the technologist activate?

    1. A.Emergency table stop
    2. B.Emergency power off
    3. C.Emergency magnet offCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Stop scan

    Explanation: The ACR identifies the "Emergency Magnet Off unit for rapidly shutting down the magnetic field" and recommends quenching for imminent injury when the person cannot be freed in time. Table stop, power off and stopping the scan do not themselves remove the superconducting magnet's static field.

    Reference: ACR Manual on MR Safety — Chapter 14, Emergency Magnet Off (Quench), pages 102–103