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Free ARRT Magnetic Resonance Imaging examination Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the ARRT Magnetic Resonance Imaging examination practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1A patient reports using herbal preparations and vitamins. In which part of the pre-MRI clinical history should these products be recorded?

    1. A.Prior surgical history
    2. B.Medication and supplement historyCorrect answer: B
    3. C.Implanted-device history
    4. D.Family medical history

    Explanation: American Hospital Association Patient Care Partnership states, "Any medicines or dietary supplements (such as vitamins and herbs) that you are taking." The history includes supplements regardless of how the patient classifies them.

    Reference: American Hospital Association Patient Care Partnership — Involvement in your care, patient information

  2. 2A technologist is describing the ACR safety-zone model to a new assistant. Which zone is the physical MRI scanner room containing the projectile area?

    1. A.Zone I
    2. B.Zone II
    3. C.Zone III
    4. D.Zone IVCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: The 2026 ACR manual states, "It includes the MR Projectile Area where there is definite, potentially lethal projectile risk." The cited Zone IV definition identifies the scanner room; the other numbered zones are outside that room.

    Reference: ACR Manual on MR Safety — Chapter 3, Zone IV, p.21

  3. 3For routine clinical MRI, which nuclear species supplies most of the measured signal from body water and fat?

    1. A.Carbon-13
    2. B.Hydrogen-1Correct answer: B
    3. C.Phosphorus-31
    4. D.Sodium-23

    Explanation: The IAEA handbook states, "MRi involves imaging the nucleus of the hydrogen atom, i.e. the proton." The routine signal is predominantly from hydrogen protons, not the less abundant nuclei used in specialized studies.

    Reference: IAEA Diagnostic Radiology Physics: A Handbook for Teachers and Students — 14.2, NMR, p.334

  4. 4A sagittal T2 FLAIR series for suspected demyelinating disease is planned to meet ACR head/neck technical criteria. Which superior-inferior coverage is specified?

    1. A.Vertex through C2Correct answer: A
    2. B.Vertex through the upper pons
    3. C.Frontal sinus through the upper medulla
    4. D.Pituitary gland through C7

    Explanation: The ACR criteria state, "Sagittal must cover entire brain from left to right and the top of the brain to the C2 level" Coverage includes the whole brain and extends to C2, rather than stopping within the posterior fossa.

    Reference: ACR MRI Exam-Specific Parameters: Head and Neck Module — Brain for Suspected Demyelinating Disease, Sagittal T2 FLAIR, coverage

  5. 5An MRI patient wants to name a person to make health care decisions if the patient later loses decision-making capacity. Which document specifically identifies that surrogate?

    1. A.Notice of Privacy Practices
    2. B.General consent to treatment
    3. C.Health care power of attorneyCorrect answer: C
    4. D.Research participation consent

    Explanation: American Hospital Association Patient Care Partnership states, "power of attorney stating who should speak for you if you become unable to make health care decisions for yourself" This document names a decision maker; the other documents address disclosure or consent for particular activities.

    Reference: American Hospital Association Patient Care Partnership — Involvement in your care, surrogate decisions

  6. 6An unscreened visitor requests independent entry to Zone III. Who controls access and activity in that area under the ACR model?

    1. A.Level 2 MR PersonnelCorrect answer: A
    2. B.Level 1 MR Personnel
    3. C.Non-MR clinical personnel
    4. D.Non-MR security personnel

    Explanation: The 2026 ACR manual states, "Access to and activity in Zone III is controlled by and entirely under the supervision of Level 2 MR Personnel" A badge or a general clinical role does not confer MR access authority.

    Reference: ACR Manual on MR Safety — Chapter 3, Zone III, p.23

  7. 7Why does a collection of protons develop a net magnetization along an applied static field?

    1. A.Equal populations in both states reinforce transverse signal
    2. B.Antiparallel spins occupy the lower-energy state
    3. C.Slightly more spins occupy the lower-energy parallel stateCorrect answer: C
    4. D.All protons become locked in the same phase

    Explanation: The IAEA handbook states, "Owing to the lower energy state of the parallel orientation, there will be a slightly greater number of spins aligned along that direction." The small population excess gives a nonzero equilibrium magnetization.

    Reference: IAEA Diagnostic Radiology Physics: A Handbook for Teachers and Students — 14.2.2, External magnetic field, p.335

  8. 8A technologist reviews sagittal T2 FLAIR for demyelinating disease under ACR criteria. Which illustrative measured CSF-to-white-matter signal ratio meets the required contrast relationship?

    1. A.2.0 : 1
    2. B.0.2 : 1Correct answer: B
    3. C.1.0 : 1
    4. D.3.0 : 1

    Explanation: The ACR criteria state, "CSF must be hypointense relative to white matter". A CSF-to-white-matter ratio of 0.2:1 means CSF is darker. The other examples make CSF equal to or brighter than white matter; these are illustrative measurements, not published numerical cutoffs.

    Reference: ACR MRI Exam-Specific Parameters: Head and Neck Module — Brain for Suspected Demyelinating Disease, Sagittal T2 FLAIR, contrast

  9. 9Before an assisted transfer to the MRI table, an alert patient asks what staff will do. When should the technologist explain the planned lifting procedure?

    1. A.After the patient is positioned on the table
    2. B.During the first movement of the lift
    3. C.After the patient has returned to the chair
    4. D.Before lifting, while enlisting patient cooperationCorrect answer: D

    Explanation: OSHA Safe Patient Handling states, "Explaining planned lifting procedures to patients prior to lifting and enlisting their cooperation and engagement can increase patient safety and comfort" Advance explanation supports cooperation and a safer transfer.

    Reference: OSHA Safe Patient Handling — Hazards and Solutions, patient involvement

  10. 10An MRI suite is applying the fringe-field boundary endorsed in the 2026 ACR manual. Which contour defines the B0 hazard area in that guidance?

    1. A.0.5 mT (5 gauss)
    2. B.0.9 mT (9 gauss)Correct answer: B
    3. C.3.0 mT (30 gauss)
    4. D.10 mT (100 gauss)

    Explanation: The 2026 ACR manual states, "revised the fringe field limit to 9 gauss (0.9 mT)" This is the current endorsed contour; the manual separately describes the historical 5-gauss approach.

    Reference: ACR Manual on MR Safety — Chapter 3, Zone III, p.23

Exam Review

About ARRT Magnetic Resonance Imaging examination

ARRT Magnetic Resonance Imaging examination · US

Key exam facts

Provider
American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT): examination owner/developer; Pearson: test-center administration.
Format
Computer-based examination, predominantly multiple-choice with one best answer; may include multiple-response, ordered-response, image-selection and video-based multiple-choice items.
Exam questions
Total questions: 230; Scored questions: 200; Unscored questions: 30; The total includes the scored and unscored questions.
Time limit
230 minutes of test time; 250-minute appointment includes an 8-minute tutorial, 2-minute nondisclosure agreement and 10-minute survey.
Passing score
A total scaled score of 75 on ARRT's 1–99 scale; not 75% correct.
Exam fee
Initial application/examination fee in US dollars: $225 primary or ARRT-supported postprimary; $450 postprimary when using NMTCB or ARDMS as the supporting credential. Fees are subject to the stated pathway/supporting-credential conditions.

Topics covered

  • Patient Care (8%)

    • Patient Interactions and Management
  • Safety (10.5%)

    • MRI Screening and Safety
  • Image Production (53%)

    • Physical Principles of Image Formation
    • Sequence Parameters and Options
    • Data Acquisition, Processing, and Storage
  • Procedures (28.5%)

    • Neurological
    • Body
    • Musculoskeletal

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

What is the exam format?

Computer-based examination, predominantly multiple-choice with one best answer; may include multiple-response, ordered-response, image-selection and video-based multiple-choice items.

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 230; Scored questions: 200; Unscored questions: 30; The total includes the scored and unscored questions.

How long is the exam?

230 minutes of test time; 250-minute appointment includes an 8-minute tutorial, 2-minute nondisclosure agreement and 10-minute survey.

What is the passing score?

A total scaled score of 75 on ARRT's 1–99 scale; not 75% correct.

How much does the exam cost?

Initial application/examination fee in US dollars: $225 primary or ARRT-supported postprimary; $450 postprimary when using NMTCB or ARDMS as the supporting credential. Fees are subject to the stated pathway/supporting-credential conditions.

Official sources and references

Confirm current exam arrangements with the exam provider.