Free AMT examination for MLS Practice Questions

Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the AMT examination for MLS practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

1. 1A laboratory's quality control result falls outside its prescribed range. What conclusion follows for the associated patient results?

   1. A. The patient results remain verified because the controls were tested.
   2. B. The patient results cannot yet be considered reliably accurate.
   3. C. The patient results are accurate if their values look clinically plausible.
   4. D. The patient results become reliable after a proficiency test is submitted.

   Answer: B

   Explanation: CMS states, "If the QC results are not within the prescribed range or the expected pattern, then the laboratory cannot be sure that the patients test results are accurate and reliable." Therefore an out-of-range control prevents assurance about those patient results.

   Reference: Good Laboratory Practices for Waived Testing — page 3, item 14

2. 2In a conventional absorption spectrophotometer, which component selects a narrow wavelength range?

   1. A. Monochromator
   2. B. Sample holder
   3. C. Photodetector
   4. D. Readout display

   Answer: A

   Explanation: The UC Davis manual states that the instrument uses "a monochromator (usually a reflection grating with associated optics) to select a narrow range of wavelengths." Detector and display have other roles.

   Reference: UC Davis Chemistry Laboratory Manual: Quantitative Spectrophotometry — Operation of Spectrometer

3. 3Which leukocyte is the most common and serves as a major immediate defense against infection?

   1. A. Neutrophil
   2. B. Eosinophil
   3. C. Basophil
   4. D. Monocyte

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NLM states, "Neutrophils are the most common type of white blood cell. They are your body's main defense against infection". The other cells have different prominent roles.

   Reference: Blood Differential — What is a blood differential test? > Neutrophils

4. 4Why is INR calculated from a prothrombin time result?

   1. A. To improve comparison among laboratories and methods
   2. B. To correct PT for a patient's platelet count
   3. C. To remove all anticoagulant effects from PT
   4. D. To convert PT directly into a factor concentration

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NLM says PT results vary by lab or method and that INR "makes it easier for health care providers to compare and better understand results from different labs or test methods." This is standardization of PT interpretation.

   Reference: Prothrombin Time Test and INR (PT/INR) — What is a prothrombin time test with an INR (PT/INR)?

5. 5Which immunoglobulin class is usually produced first after exposure to a germ?

   1. A. IgM
   2. B. IgG
   3. C. IgA
   4. D. IgE

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NLM states, "IgM antibodies are the first immunoglobulins your body makes after you're exposed to a germ." This is the primary timing distinction.

   Reference: Immunoglobulins Blood Test — What is an immunoglobulins blood test? > IgM

6. 6In forward ABO grouping, what is mixed with the patient's red cells?

   1. A. Anti-A and anti-B reagents
   2. B. Known A and B red cells
   3. C. Patient platelets and serum
   4. D. Donor plasma and saline

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NLM states, "Your blood sample is mixed with antibodies against type A and B blood." Forward grouping tests red-cell antigens using reagent antibodies.

   Reference: Blood typing — How the Test is Performed > ABO typing

7. 7Under the FDA-approved SOLX System labeling, at what temperature are CPD/AS-7 leukocyte-reduced red cells stored?

   1. A. 1 to 6°C
   2. B. 20 to 24°C
   3. C. −18°C or colder
   4. D. 10 to 15°C

   Answer: A

   Explanation: The FDA product page states, "CPD/AS-7 Red Blood Cells, Leukocytes Reduced may be stored at 1 to 6° C for up to 42 days after collection." The listed red-cell storage range is 1–6°C.

   Reference: SOLX System | FDA — Indication for use, CPD/AS-7 Red Blood Cells

8. 8What bacterial property is the basis of the Gram stain's positive-versus-negative differential reaction?

   1. A. Chemical and physical properties of the cell wall
   2. B. Rate of bacterial division in broth
   3. C. Ability to produce catalase bubbles
   4. D. Amount of extracellular capsule produced

   Answer: A

   Explanation: The CDC job aid describes Gram staining as a procedure that categorizes bacteria "based on the chemical and physical properties of their cell walls." Growth rate, catalase, and capsule quantity do not define this stain reaction.

   Reference: Gram Stain | CDC OneLab REACH — Introduction, page 1

9. 9Which nephron structure initially filters small molecules, wastes, and water from the blood?

   1. A. Glomerulus
   2. B. Proximal convoluted tubule
   3. C. Loop of Henle
   4. D. Distal convoluted tubule

   Answer: A

   Explanation: NIDDK explains, "The thin walls of the glomerulus allow smaller molecules, wastes, and fluid—mostly water—to pass into the tubule." This is the initial filtration step.

   Reference: Your Kidneys & How They Work | NIDDK — How do my kidneys work? The glomerulus filters your blood

10. 10What is the primary role of a control material with a known analyte value in patient testing?

    1. A. To assign a diagnostic reference interval for each patient.
    2. B. To replace a patient's specimen when volume is insufficient.
    3. C. To check whether the test system is functioning as expected.
    4. D. To calculate the laboratory's annual testing volume.

    Answer: C

    Explanation: CMS explains that controls are "materials with known values of the substance measured that help the laboratory achieve accurate and reliable testing by checking if the test system is working." A known-value control tests system performance.

    Reference: Good Laboratory Practices for Waived Testing — page 2, item 13