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Free Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) Air Law, Aeroplane Operation and Navigation General Practice Questions

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Sample Practice Questions

Try these 10 sample questions from the Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) Air Law, Aeroplane Operation and Navigation General practice bank. Each includes the answer and explanation. Continue with the interactive practice above to review the full question set.

  1. 1After the Minister gives reasonable notice of an aircraft inspection, what must its owner or operator do?

    1. A.Make the aircraft available for inspection as specified in the notice.Correct answer: A
    2. B.Submit the aircraft's registration instead of making it available.
    3. C.Make the aircraft available only after the next scheduled flight.
    4. D.Arrange the inspection only if the aircraft is used commercially.

    Explanation: CAR 103.02(1) states: "The owner or operator of an aircraft shall, on reasonable notice given by the Minister, make the aircraft available for inspection in accordance with the notice." The specified notice governs availability; registration alone, a self-selected delay, and a commercial-use condition do not replace this requirement.

    Reference: Canadian Aviation Regulations — 103.02(1)

  2. 2In a semimonocoque fuselage, what role do the bulkheads, formers and stringers have?

    1. A.They carry all bending loads while the skin is unstressed.
    2. B.They share bending stresses with the stressed skin.Correct answer: B
    3. C.They carry only pressurization loads while the skin carries bending.
    4. D.They transfer all bending loads directly to the wing spars.

    Explanation: Bulkheads, formers and stringers reinforce the stressed skin by taking some fuselage bending stress. Source: "reinforces the stressed skin by taking some of the bending stress from the fuselage."

    Reference: FAA Pilot’s Handbook, Chapter 3 — p. 3-8, Semimonocoque

  3. 3With the pitot opening blocked and the drain hole open, what happens to the conventional airspeed indication?

    1. A.It falls toward zero as the trapped pressure vents.Correct answer: A
    2. B.It remains at the indicated airspeed at the instant of blockage.
    3. C.It increases with altitude because both pitot openings trap pressure.
    4. D.It reads low in descent because the static source is trapped.

    Explanation: With the drain open, pressure vents and the ASI falls toward zero. The source states: "Under these circumstances, the ASI reading decreases to zero because the ASI senses no difference between ram and static air pressure." Source: "Static pressure is able to equalize on both sides since the pitot drain hole is still open."

    Reference: FAA Pilot’s Handbook, Chapter 8 — p. 8-11, Blocked Pitot System

  4. 4On a spherical Earth, which path between two points gives the shortest surface distance?

    1. A.A path that maintains the same magnetic heading in every case.
    2. B.The shorter arc of a great circle through the points.Correct answer: B
    3. C.A rhumb line through the points in every case.
    4. D.The parallel of latitude through the departure point in every case.

    Explanation: On a sphere, the shortest surface path is part of a great circle. A constant-course rhumb line can be longer. The source states: "The shortest line on the surface of a sphere between two points on that surface is part of a great circle."

    Reference: NGA American Practical Navigator — Appendix F, Circles of the Earth

  5. 5At a constant pressure, what happens to air density as temperature increases?

    1. A.It first increases and then remains constant.
    2. B.It decreases.Correct answer: B
    3. C.It increases.
    4. D.It remains unchanged.

    Explanation: At constant pressure, the handbook states that air density "varies inversely with temperature". A temperature increase therefore decreases density. The source states: "the density of air varies inversely with temperature."

    Reference: FAA Pilot’s Handbook, Chapter 11 — p. 11-4, Effects of Temperature on Density

  6. 6In a coordinated level turn at 60° bank, what is the approximate load factor?

    1. A.3 G.
    2. B.4 G.
    3. C.2 G.Correct answer: C
    4. D.1 G.

    Explanation: The handbook gives 2 G for a coordinated level turn at 60° bank; maintaining altitude requires lift equal to twice weight. The source states: "The load factor for any aircraft in a coordinated level turn at 60° bank is 2 Gs."

    Reference: FAA Pilot’s Handbook, Chapter 5 — p. 5-34, Load Factors in Steep Turns

  7. 7Why can altitude hypoxia occur as cabin pressure altitude increases?

    1. A.Lower barometric pressure reduces available oxygen while its atmospheric percentage remains nearly constant.Correct answer: A
    2. B.Lower barometric pressure reduces the percentage of oxygen while its partial pressure stays constant.
    3. C.Lower barometric pressure increases the oxygen percentage but reduces the nitrogen percentage.
    4. D.Lower barometric pressure leaves oxygen partial pressure unchanged but lowers carbon dioxide pressure.

    Explanation: Lower atmospheric pressure reduces oxygen partial pressure even though the oxygen fraction remains approximately 21 percent. Source: "Hypoxia from exposure to altitude is due only to the reduced barometric pressures encountered at altitude" The source also states: "the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere remains about 21 percent from the ground out to space."

    Reference: FAA AIM, Medical Facts for Pilots — 8-1-2, Hypoxia

  8. 8Under CAR 107.03, what must a safety management system include concerning aviation safety goals?

    1. A.A process to set operational goals in place of safety goals.
    2. B.A process to set improvement goals and measure their attainment.Correct answer: B
    3. C.A process to set improvement goals without measuring attainment.
    4. D.A process to measure attainment without setting improvement goals.

    Explanation: CAR 107.03(b) requires "a process for setting goals for the improvement of aviation safety and for measuring the attainment of those goals;". Setting safety goals and measuring their attainment are both required; omitting either or substituting operational goals misses the specified component.

    Reference: Canadian Aviation Regulations — 107.03(b)

  9. 9In a fibre-reinforced composite aircraft structure, what primarily carries the load?

    1. A.The resin matrix carries most of the structural load.
    2. B.The interface between the matrix and surface coating carries most of the structural load.
    3. C.The reinforcing fibres carry most of the structural load.Correct answer: C
    4. D.The fibres and resin matrix share the load equally.

    Explanation: The fibres carry most of the load while the matrix binds them and provides the component's shape. Source: "the fibers carry most of the load."

    Reference: FAA Pilot’s Handbook, Chapter 3 — p. 3-9, Composite Materials in Aircraft

  10. 10What does a conventional turn coordinator initially sense as an aircraft rolls into a turn?

    1. A.Roll rate initially, then turn rate after roll stabilizes.Correct answer: A
    2. B.Turn rate initially, then roll rate after roll stabilizes.
    3. C.Bank angle initially, then turn rate after roll stabilizes.
    4. D.Roll rate initially, then bank angle after roll stabilizes.

    Explanation: The canted gyro detects roll rate initially, then indicates turn rate in the stabilized turn. The source adds: "When the roll stabilizes, it indicates rate of turn." Source: "The turn coordinator is mounted at an angle, or canted, so it can initially show roll rate."

    Reference: FAA Pilot’s Handbook, Chapter 8 — p. 8-16, Turn Indicators

Exam Review

About Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) Air Law, Aeroplane Operation and Navigation General

Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) Air Law, Aeroplane Operation and Navigation General · CA

Key exam facts

Exam questions
Total questions: 80.

Topics covered

  • Air Law and Procedures

    • Part I – General Provisions
    • Part II – Aircraft Identification and Registration and Operation of a Leased Aircraft by a Non-Registered Owner
    • Part III – Aerodromes and Airports
    • Part IV – Personnel Licensing and Training
    • Part V – Airworthiness
    • Part VI – General Operating and Flight Rules
    • Part VII – Commercial Air Services
    • Transportation Safety Board of Canada (TSB)
    • Other Canadian Legislation
    • International Air Law
    • International Flight Procedures
    • Air Traffic Services and Procedures
    • Operations in High Level Domestic Airspace
    • Performance Based Navigation, Required Navigation Performance (RNP), and Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications (CMNPS) Airspace
    • ATC Special Procedures
    • Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) Airspace
  • Airframes, Power Plants, Propellers and Aircraft Systems

    • Airframes
    • Wing Systems
    • Flight Controls
    • Power Plants
    • Propellers
    • Aircraft Systems
    • Warning and Protection Systems
    • Serviceability
  • Instruments

    • Flight Instruments – Principles and Operational Use
    • Flight Management Instruments
    • Engine Instruments – Principles and Use
    • Aircraft Compass Systems
  • Navigation - General

    • Navigation Terms
    • Maps and Charts
    • Time and Longitude
    • En Route Navigation
  • Flight Operations

    • Atmospheric Effects in Flight
    • Performance
    • Charts and Graphs
    • Critical Surface Contamination
    • Wake Turbulence
    • Flight Manual
    • Volcanic Ash
    • Airmanship/Rules of Thumb
    • Abnormal Flight Procedures/Recovery
  • Theory of Flight

    • Forces Acting on an Aeroplane
    • Subsonic Aerodynamics
    • High Speed Aerodynamics
    • Wing Design
    • Effects of In-Flight Icing
  • Human Factors

    • Aviation Physiology
    • The Pilot and the Operating Environment
    • Aviation Psychology
    • Pilot – Equipment/Materials Relationship
    • Interpersonal Relations
    • Crew Resource Management (CRM)
    • Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT) Threat and Error Management (TEM)

How to prepare

Work through the topics, read the explanation after each answer, and revisit the areas where you miss questions. Use the official outline and reference materials below to guide your study.

These independent practice questions are not actual exam items and do not guarantee a passing result.

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the exam?

Total questions: 80.

Official sources and references

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