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Idaho Respiratory Therapy — Requirements & Free Practice

US-ID · License preparation

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Licenses, application pathways and examination requirements

Each license and applicant pathway has its own requirements and exemptions. Choosing practice questions does not determine your eligibility.

Conditional Respiratory Care Practitioner License

One-year conditional licensure in lieu of denial based on a prior conviction, with Board-imposed probationary conditions.

Licensing authority: Idaho State Board of Medicine, advised by the Allied Health Advisory Board · Application information

Conditional initial licensure following conviction review
Application
Submit the completed Board application and prescribed fees. The Board-hosted Rev.01/23 instructions request signed/notarized forms, an education verification sent by the institution, chronological history without a gap exceeding one month, answers and documentation for disclosure questions, and direct verification from jurisdictions of licensure. Current statutes and the July 1, 2025 rule supersede older fee and renewal information in that form.
Conviction Exception
The licensing authority may issue one-year conditional licensure instead of denying solely on the prior conviction, with probationary conditions; satisfy the other statutory initial-license requirements.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.

Dual Respiratory Care and Polysomnography-related Respiratory Care License/Permit

One dual license/permit for applicants meeting both respiratory care and polysomnographic technologist requirements.

Licensing authority: Idaho State Board of Medicine, advised by the Allied Health Advisory Board · Application information

New licensure after expiration beyond twenty four months
Application
Submit the prescribed application and fee; the Board-hosted Rev.01/23 form requests direct education and licensure verifications and current CPR documentation. Current statute and rule control over older fee information.
Cpr
Be currently certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
Education
Be a high school graduate, have graduated from a nonpublic school, or hold a GED certificate under Idaho Code 54-4307(2)(c).
Fitness
Do not have an offense or licensing discipline bearing a demonstrable relationship to polysomnography-related respiratory care in the Board's judgment.
Lapse
More than twenty-four months expired: comply with initial-license requirements under §54-4308. If canceled for more than five years, §67-2614(10) also requires a new application, fees, outstanding amounts, and Board-determined competency evidence; unnamed additional examinations are applicant conditions.
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Qualification
Meet Idaho Code 54-4308 and 54-4307(2), (3) together; national respiratory credentialing and approved polysomnographic technologist examination are both qualifications. The unregistered BRPT condition is additional to the registered NBRC tree, not an alternative to it.
Unregistered National Examination
The Board of Registered Polysomnographic Technologists comprehensive registry examination leading to Registered Polysomnographic Technologist (RPSGT), identified in IDAPA 24.33.06.100.02 and implemented by the Board's PSG application NATIONAL EXAM VERIFICATION, is required for this polysomnography-related respiratory care qualification. No BRPT/RPSGT exam version is supplied in sharedExamContext or knownRegistrations; TMC and CSE are NBRC respiratory examinations and cannot resolve the BRPT examination. The Board may recognize an equivalent board under the rule; that open approval is an applicant condition.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.
Reinstatement after failure to renew
No examination is required for this applicant pathway.
Compliance
Provide the documentation required for timely renewal and any other reinstatement requirements of the division; pay reinstatement and renewal amounts as required. These reinstatement provisions identify no additional examination.
Lapse
For a respiratory care license or dual license, no more than twenty-four months expired under §54-4310(5); the general §67-2614(9) reinstatement period is five years. For a standalone permit, the five-year general authority applies because §54-4310(5) states its shorter limit for a license.

Official no-examination sources

Effective from 2026-09-22.

Timely renewal
No examination is required for this applicant pathway.
Continuing Education
For an active license, submit proof of no fewer than twelve hours of Board-approved continuing education under §54-4310(2); choose respiratory-therapy-related public health and safety programs under IDAPA 24.33.06.100.04. The statutory twelve-hour requirement is worded for active licenses, not standalone permit holders.
Military
Idaho Code 67-2606 permits fee exemption and continuation in good standing during qualifying military service and for six months after discharge; §67-9416(5) grants active-service continuing education waivers.
Out Of State Continuing Education
Idaho Code 67-9416(3)-(4) allows qualifying out-of-state residents to meet equivalent primary-residence continuing education, subject to any preserved Idaho-specific requirement.
Prior Credential
Hold this Idaho credential.
Renewal
Renew every two years before the credential expires, with the prescribed renewal application, fee, and compliance documentation.

Official no-examination sources

Effective from 2026-09-22.

Dual credential for an existing polysomnography permit holder
Application
Submit the prescribed application and fee; the Board-hosted Rev.01/23 form requests direct education and licensure verifications and current CPR documentation. Current statute and rule control over older fee information.
Cpr
Be currently certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
Education
Be a high school graduate, have graduated from a nonpublic school, or hold a GED certificate under Idaho Code 54-4307(2)(c).
Existing Credential
Hold a current polysomnography permit and independently meet the respiratory care requirements and technologist qualification; a technician permit alone does not substitute for §54-4307(3). No additional dual-credential fee under IDAPA 24.33.06.400.01.
Fitness
Do not have an offense or licensing discipline bearing a demonstrable relationship to polysomnography-related respiratory care in the Board's judgment.
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Qualification
Meet Idaho Code 54-4308 and 54-4307(2), (3) together; national respiratory credentialing and approved polysomnographic technologist examination are both qualifications. The unregistered BRPT condition is additional to the registered NBRC tree, not an alternative to it.
Unregistered National Examination
The Board of Registered Polysomnographic Technologists comprehensive registry examination leading to Registered Polysomnographic Technologist (RPSGT), identified in IDAPA 24.33.06.100.02 and implemented by the Board's PSG application NATIONAL EXAM VERIFICATION, is required for this polysomnography-related respiratory care qualification. No BRPT/RPSGT exam version is supplied in sharedExamContext or knownRegistrations; TMC and CSE are NBRC respiratory examinations and cannot resolve the BRPT examination. The Board may recognize an equivalent board under the rule; that open approval is an applicant condition.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.
Dual credential for an existing respiratory care license holder
Application
Submit the prescribed application and fee; the Board-hosted Rev.01/23 form requests direct education and licensure verifications and current CPR documentation. Current statute and rule control over older fee information.
Cpr
Be currently certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
Education
Be a high school graduate, have graduated from a nonpublic school, or hold a GED certificate under Idaho Code 54-4307(2)(c).
Existing Credential
Hold a current respiratory care license and qualify for the polysomnography permit. Current national examination evidence remains relevant even if passed before this upgrade; no additional dual-credential fee under IDAPA 24.33.06.400.01.
Fitness
Do not have an offense or licensing discipline bearing a demonstrable relationship to polysomnography-related respiratory care in the Board's judgment.
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Qualification
Meet Idaho Code 54-4308 and 54-4307(2), (3) together; national respiratory credentialing and approved polysomnographic technologist examination are both qualifications. The unregistered BRPT condition is additional to the registered NBRC tree, not an alternative to it.
Unregistered National Examination
The Board of Registered Polysomnographic Technologists comprehensive registry examination leading to Registered Polysomnographic Technologist (RPSGT), identified in IDAPA 24.33.06.100.02 and implemented by the Board's PSG application NATIONAL EXAM VERIFICATION, is required for this polysomnography-related respiratory care qualification. No BRPT/RPSGT exam version is supplied in sharedExamContext or knownRegistrations; TMC and CSE are NBRC respiratory examinations and cannot resolve the BRPT examination. The Board may recognize an equivalent board under the rule; that open approval is an applicant condition.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.
Initial dual respiratory care and polysomnography credential
Application
Submit the prescribed application and fee; the Board-hosted Rev.01/23 form requests direct education and licensure verifications and current CPR documentation. Current statute and rule control over older fee information.
Cpr
Be currently certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
Education
Be a high school graduate, have graduated from a nonpublic school, or hold a GED certificate under Idaho Code 54-4307(2)(c).
Fitness
Do not have an offense or licensing discipline bearing a demonstrable relationship to polysomnography-related respiratory care in the Board's judgment.
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Qualification
Meet Idaho Code 54-4308 and 54-4307(2), (3) together; national respiratory credentialing and approved polysomnographic technologist examination are both qualifications. The unregistered BRPT condition is additional to the registered NBRC tree, not an alternative to it.
Unregistered National Examination
The Board of Registered Polysomnographic Technologists comprehensive registry examination leading to Registered Polysomnographic Technologist (RPSGT), identified in IDAPA 24.33.06.100.02 and implemented by the Board's PSG application NATIONAL EXAM VERIFICATION, is required for this polysomnography-related respiratory care qualification. No BRPT/RPSGT exam version is supplied in sharedExamContext or knownRegistrations; TMC and CSE are NBRC respiratory examinations and cannot resolve the BRPT examination. The Board may recognize an equivalent board under the rule; that open approval is an applicant condition.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.
Military endorsement for equivalent dual practice authority
No examination is required for this applicant pathway.
Application
Use the condensed military application; validate the two requirements in Idaho Code 67-9406(2); no application fee and no examination sitting under subsection (4).
Disclosure
Disclose current, pending, and subsequent proceedings; the authority may withhold, revoke, or condition the license in response.
Eligibility
Military member, former member discharged under honorable conditions, veteran, or qualifying spouse; validate current, valid, unrestricted licensure in another United States jurisdiction, armed forces branch, or National Guard.
Ordinary Forms
The ordinary RT and PSG forms request NBRC and BRPT verification respectively; the condensed military procedure and prohibition on requiring examinations in §67-9406(2), (4) govern this route.
Scope
Existing valid, unrestricted authority must cover both respiratory care and polysomnography-related respiratory care; narrower authority invokes the limited-license procedure.

Official no-examination sources

Effective from 2026-09-22.

Universal dual licensure and permitting
Application
Submit the prescribed application and fee; the Board-hosted Rev.01/23 form requests direct education and licensure verifications and current CPR documentation. Current statute and rule control over older fee information.
Cpr
Be currently certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Current License
Hold current, valid, unrestricted authority for both corresponding practices in another United States jurisdiction and demonstrate competency to the Board.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
Education
Be a high school graduate, have graduated from a nonpublic school, or hold a GED certificate under Idaho Code 54-4307(2)(c).
Fitness
Do not have an offense or licensing discipline bearing a demonstrable relationship to polysomnography-related respiratory care in the Board's judgment.
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Qualification
Meet Idaho Code 54-4308 and 54-4307(2), (3) together; national respiratory credentialing and approved polysomnographic technologist examination are both qualifications. The unregistered BRPT condition is additional to the registered NBRC tree, not an alternative to it.
Unregistered National Examination
The Board of Registered Polysomnographic Technologists comprehensive registry examination leading to Registered Polysomnographic Technologist (RPSGT), identified in IDAPA 24.33.06.100.02 and implemented by the Board's PSG application NATIONAL EXAM VERIFICATION, is required for this polysomnography-related respiratory care qualification. No BRPT/RPSGT exam version is supplied in sharedExamContext or knownRegistrations; TMC and CSE are NBRC respiratory examinations and cannot resolve the BRPT examination. The Board may recognize an equivalent board under the rule; that open approval is an applicant condition.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.

Respiratory Care Practitioner License

Full Idaho respiratory care license. CRT and RRT are national credentials, not separate Idaho licenses.

Licensing authority: Idaho State Board of Medicine, advised by the Allied Health Advisory Board · Application information

Licensure after an applicable apprenticeship
Applicable Program
Complete a paid on-the-job program adopted by an Idaho licensing authority, United States Department of Labor, or a recognized standards recognition entity, and accepted as applicable to this practice; satisfy the applicable examination, fees, and other non-training criteria. This statutory route does not assert that an RT-specific apprenticeship is currently offered.
Application
Submit the completed Board application and prescribed fees. The Board-hosted Rev.01/23 instructions request signed/notarized forms, an education verification sent by the institution, chronological history without a gap exceeding one month, answers and documentation for disclosure questions, and direct verification from jurisdictions of licensure. Current statutes and the July 1, 2025 rule supersede older fee and renewal information in that form.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.
Full licensure after successful conditional licensure
No examination is required for this applicant pathway.
Prior License
Hold the one-year conditional respiratory care license.
Probation
Successfully complete the imposed probationary conditions; the statute directs issuance of a full unrestricted license. Failure results in revocation and denial.

Official no-examination sources

Effective from 2026-09-22.

Initial licensure by NBRC credentialing
Application
Submit the completed Board application and prescribed fees. The Board-hosted Rev.01/23 instructions request signed/notarized forms, an education verification sent by the institution, chronological history without a gap exceeding one month, answers and documentation for disclosure questions, and direct verification from jurisdictions of licensure. Current statutes and the July 1, 2025 rule supersede older fee and renewal information in that form.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.
Military, veteran, or spouse licensure by endorsement
No examination is required for this applicant pathway.
Application
Use the condensed military application; validate the two requirements in Idaho Code 67-9406(2); no application fee and no examination sitting under subsection (4).
Disciplinary Disclosure
Disclose current, pending, and subsequent proceedings; the authority may withhold, revoke, or condition the license in response.
Eligibility
Military member, former member discharged under honorable conditions, veteran, or qualifying spouse; validate current, valid, unrestricted licensure in another United States jurisdiction, armed forces branch, or National Guard.
Ordinary Application Statement
The Board-hosted Rev.01/23 RT application states: "Applicants for full RT licensure must request verification from the NBRC." This ordinary-application demand is recorded as the Board's statement; the condensed military procedure in Idaho Code 67-9406(2), (4) controls this route.
Scope
The full endorsement is for matching scope. If Idaho scope is broader, subsection (5) allows limited licensure and a narrowly tailored examination for additional qualifications; that limited/full-conversion issue is recorded separately.

Official no-examination sources

Effective from 2026-09-22.

Expedited initial licensure with military qualifications
Application
Submit the completed Board application and prescribed fees. The Board-hosted Rev.01/23 instructions request signed/notarized forms, an education verification sent by the institution, chronological history without a gap exceeding one month, answers and documentation for disclosure questions, and direct verification from jurisdictions of licensure. Current statutes and the July 1, 2025 rule supersede older fee and renewal information in that form.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
Eligibility
Military member, former member discharged honorably, veteran, or qualifying spouse possessing necessary qualifications; §67-9405 expedites processing and §67-9404 credits relevant military education, training, or service. These provisions do not replace national credentialing; military endorsement under §67-9406 is a separate route.
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.
New licensure after expiration beyond twenty four months
Application
Submit the completed Board application and prescribed fees. The Board-hosted Rev.01/23 instructions request signed/notarized forms, an education verification sent by the institution, chronological history without a gap exceeding one month, answers and documentation for disclosure questions, and direct verification from jurisdictions of licensure. Current statutes and the July 1, 2025 rule supersede older fee and renewal information in that form.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
Lapse
More than twenty-four months expired: comply with initial-license requirements under §54-4308. If canceled for more than five years, §67-2614(10) also requires a new application, fees, outstanding amounts, and Board-determined competency evidence; unnamed additional examinations are applicant conditions.
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.
Reinstatement after failure to renew
No examination is required for this applicant pathway.
Compliance
Provide the documentation required for timely renewal and any other reinstatement requirements of the division; pay reinstatement and renewal amounts as required. These reinstatement provisions identify no additional examination.
Lapse
For a respiratory care license or dual license, no more than twenty-four months expired under §54-4310(5); the general §67-2614(9) reinstatement period is five years. For a standalone permit, the five-year general authority applies because §54-4310(5) states its shorter limit for a license.

Official no-examination sources

Effective from 2026-09-22.

Timely renewal
No examination is required for this applicant pathway.
Continuing Education
For an active license, submit proof of no fewer than twelve hours of Board-approved continuing education under §54-4310(2); choose respiratory-therapy-related public health and safety programs under IDAPA 24.33.06.100.04. The statutory twelve-hour requirement is worded for active licenses, not standalone permit holders.
Military
Idaho Code 67-2606 permits fee exemption and continuation in good standing during qualifying military service and for six months after discharge; §67-9416(5) grants active-service continuing education waivers.
Out Of State Continuing Education
Idaho Code 67-9416(3)-(4) allows qualifying out-of-state residents to meet equivalent primary-residence continuing education, subject to any preserved Idaho-specific requirement.
Prior Credential
Hold this Idaho credential.
Renewal
Renew every two years before the credential expires, with the prescribed renewal application, fee, and compliance documentation.

Official no-examination sources

Effective from 2026-09-22.

Universal licensure for a currently licensed applicant
Application
Submit the completed Board application and prescribed fees. The Board-hosted Rev.01/23 instructions request signed/notarized forms, an education verification sent by the institution, chronological history without a gap exceeding one month, answers and documentation for disclosure questions, and direct verification from jurisdictions of licensure. Current statutes and the July 1, 2025 rule supersede older fee and renewal information in that form.
Competency
Demonstrate competency through methods determined by the Board; the Board may require all or part of an examination it administers. The public RT application requests NBRC verification for full RT applicants. The statute prohibits establishing a new jurisprudence examination for universal applicants.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Current License
Possess current, valid, unrestricted licensure in another United States jurisdiction.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
Fees
Pay the same licensing fees and comply with applicable maintenance requirements.
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.
Universal work recognition
Application
Submit the completed Board application and prescribed fees. The Board-hosted Rev.01/23 instructions request signed/notarized forms, an education verification sent by the institution, chronological history without a gap exceeding one month, answers and documentation for disclosure questions, and direct verification from jurisdictions of licensure. Current statutes and the July 1, 2025 rule supersede older fee and renewal information in that form.
Criminal History
Do not have a crime currently relevant under Idaho Code 67-9411(1); the Board evaluates relevance using the statutory factors.
Discipline
Do not have disciplinary action arising from gross negligence or intentional misconduct directly related to respiratory care, as provided by Idaho Code 54-4308(2)(b).
Examination Standard
The licensing authority must use the same passing score as for standard applicants, when it requires an examination.
National Credential
Receive respiratory care credentialing from a Board-approved national accrediting organization; the Board application requests NBRC certification/registry verification directly from NBRC. CRT is the entry-level option; RRT includes the written registry and clinical simulation examinations under Idaho Code 54-4303(3), (9). The supplied currently active TMC and CSE versions resolve these NBRC examinations. Previously earned applicable credentials and scores may satisfy the requirement without a new sitting.
Waiver
Any waiver or variance is determined by the Board under Idaho Code 67-9415; subsection (6) does not allow an initial license for an individual who fails statutory initial-license requirements.
Work Experience
At least four years of work in another United States jurisdiction or the military where this practice did not require a license; similar scope of practice in Idaho.

Provisional Respiratory Care Practitioner License

Nonrenewable license for a graduate pursuing the national examination, for no more than six months under supervision.

Licensing authority: Idaho State Board of Medicine, advised by the Allied Health Advisory Board · Application information

Provisional licensure while pursuing the national examination
Duration
No more than six months, nonrenewable; failure to pass within the six-month period prevents further temporary licensure.
Examination Progress
Have applied to take, or taken and be awaiting the results of, the requisite Board-approved national examination(s). The examination need not have been passed when the provisional license issues.
Graduation
Graduate from an accredited or approved respiratory care educational program.
Supervision
Practice under a respiratory care practitioner or licensed physician responsible for the work and available for telephone consultation; submit the Board supervisor affidavit for each facility.

Clinical Simulation Examination

Provider
The National Board for Respiratory Care (NBRC); administered Monday through Saturday at more than 300 assessment centers through the NBRC testing agency PSI
Format
Computer-based clinical simulation examination of patient-management problems with information-gathering and decision-making sections; each section of each problem is classified to a minor content heading of the Detailed Content Outline. Admission requires the CRT and a TMC pass at the high cut score; with the implementation of the Respiratory Therapy Examination the CSE is available only to those who passed the TMC at the high cut score by December 31, 2026, and it ends December 31, 2027
Exam questions
22 problems: 20 scored and 2 pretest
Time limit
4 hours
Passing score
Points associated with the candidate’s set of responses are summed across the whole examination into one score compared with a cut score linked to examination committee decisions on whether each positively-scored option is required as a demonstration of minimal competence
Exam fee
$200 for both new and repeat applicants
Examination outline
  • I. PATIENT DATA
    • I.A. Evaluate Data in the Patient Record — 1. Patient history, for example, history of present illness (HPI), orders, medication reconciliation, progress notes, DNR status / advance directives, social, family, and medical history; 2. Physical examination relative to the cardiopulmonary system; 3. Lines, drains, and airways, for example, chest tube, vascular lines, artificial airway; 4. Laboratory results, for example, CBC, electrolytes, coagulation studies, sputum culture and sensitivities, cardiac biomarkers; 5. Blood gas analysis and / or hemoximetry (CO-oximetry) results; 6. Pulmonary function testing results, for example spirometry, lung volumes, DLCO; 7. 6-minute walk test results; 8. Imaging study results, for example, chest radiograph, CT scan, ultrasonography and / or echocardiography, PET scan, ventilation / perfusion scan; 9. Maternal and perinatal / neonatal history, for example, Apgar scores, gestational age, L / S ratio; 10. Sleep study results, for example, apnea-hypopnea index (AHI); 11. Trends in monitoring results: a. fluid balance; b. vital signs; c. intracranial pressure; d. ventilator liberation parameters; e. pulmonary mechanics; f. noninvasive, for example, pulse oximetry, capnography, transcutaneous; g. cardiac evaluation / monitoring results, for example, ECG, hemodynamic parameters; 12. Determination of a patient's pathophysiological state
    • I.B. Perform Clinical Assessment — 1. Interviewing a patient to assess a. level of consciousness and orientation, emotional state, and ability to cooperate; b. level of pain; c. shortness of breath, sputum production, and exercise tolerance; d. smoking history; e. environmental exposures; f. activities of daily living; g. learning needs, for example, literacy, preferred learning style, social / cultural; 2. Performing inspection to assess a. general appearance; b. characteristics of the airway, for example, patency, Mallampati classification, tracheal shift; c. cough, sputum amount and character; d. status of a neonate, for example, Apgar score, gestational age; e. skin integrity, for example, pressure ulcers, stoma site; 3. Palpating to assess a. pulse, rhythm, intensity; b. accessory muscle activity; c. asymmetrical chest movements, tactile fremitus, crepitus, tenderness, tactile rhonchi, and / or tracheal deviation; 4. Performing diagnostic chest percussion; 5. Auscultating to assess a. breath sounds; b. heart sounds and rhythm; c. blood pressure; 6. Reviewing a chest radiograph to assess a. quality of imaging, for example, patient positioning, penetration, lung inflation; b. presence and position of airways, lines, and drains; c. presence of foreign bodies; d. heart size and position; e. presence of, or change in, (i) cardiopulmonary abnormalities, for example, pneumothorax, consolidation, pleural effusion, pulmonary edema, pulmonary artery size; (ii) diaphragm, mediastinum, and / or trachea
    • I.C. Perform Procedures to Gather Clinical Information — 1. 12-lead ECG; 2. Noninvasive monitoring, for example, pulse oximetry, capnography, transcutaneous; 3. Peak flow; 4. Mechanics of spontaneous ventilation linked to tidal volume, minute volume, maximal inspiratory pressure, and vital capacity; 5. Blood gas sample collection; 6. Blood gas analysis and / or hemoximetry (CO-oximetry); 7. Oxygen titration with exercise; 8. Cardiopulmonary calculations, for example, P(A-a)O2, VD / VT, P/F, OI; 9. Hemodynamic monitoring; 10. Pulmonary compliance and airways resistance; 11. Plateau pressure; 12. Auto-PEEP determination; 13. Spontaneous breathing trial (SBT); 14. Apnea monitoring; 15. Apnea test (brain death determination); 16. Overnight pulse oximetry; 17. CPAP / NPPV titration during sleep; 18. Cuff management, for example, tracheal, laryngeal; 19. Sputum induction; 20. Cardiopulmonary exercise testing; 21. 6-minute walk test; 22. Spirometry outside or inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 23. DLCO inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 24. Lung volumes inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 25. Tests of respiratory muscle strength - MIP and MEP; 26. Therapeutic bronchoscopy
    • I.D. Evaluate Procedure Results — 1. 12-lead ECG; 2. Noninvasive monitoring, for example, pulse oximetry, capnography, transcutaneous; 3. Peak flow; 4. Mechanics of spontaneous ventilation linked to tidal volume, minute volume, maximal inspiratory pressure, and vital capacity; 5. Blood gas analysis and / or hemoximetry (CO-oximetry); 6. Oxygen titration with exercise; 7. Cardiopulmonary calculations, for example, P(A-a)O2, VD / VT, P/F, OI; 8. Hemodynamic monitoring; 9. Pulmonary compliance and airways resistance; 10. Plateau pressure; 11. Auto-PEEP; 12. Spontaneous breathing trial (SBT); 13. Apnea monitoring; 14. Apnea test (brain death determination); 15. Overnight pulse oximetry; 16. CPAP / NPPV titration during sleep; 17. Cuff status, for example, laryngeal, tracheal; 18. Cardiopulmonary exercise testing; 19. 6-minute walk test; 20. Spirometry outside or inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 21. DLCO inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 22. Lung volumes inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 23. Tests of respiratory muscle strength - MIP and MEP
    • I.E. Recommend Diagnostic Procedures — 1. Testing for tuberculosis; 2. Laboratory tests, for example, CBC, electrolytes, coagulation studies, sputum culture and sensitivities, cardiac biomarkers; 3. Imaging studies; 4. Bronchoscopy a. diagnostic; b. therapeutic; 5. Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL); 6. Pulmonary function testing; 7. Noninvasive monitoring, for example, pulse oximetry, capnography, transcutaneous; 8. Blood gas and/or hemoximetry (CO-oximetry); 9. ECG; 10. Exhaled gas analysis, for example, CO2, CO, FENO; 11. Hemodynamic monitoring; 12. Sleep studies; 13. Thoracentesis
  • II. TROUBLESHOOTING AND QUALITY CONTROL OF EQUIPMENT, AND INFECTION CONTROL
    • II.A. Assemble /Troubleshoot Devices — 1. Medical gas delivery interfaces, for example, mask, cannula, heated high-flow nasal cannula; 2. Long-term oxygen therapy; 3. Medical gas delivery, metering, and /or clinical analyzing devices, for example, concentrator, liquid system, flowmeter, regulator, gas cylinder, blender, air compressor, gas analyzers; 4. CPAP / NPPV with patient interfaces; 5. Humidifiers; 6. Nebulizers; 7. Metered-dose inhalers, spacers, and valved holding chambers; 8. Dry-powder inhalers (DPI); 9. Resuscitation equipment, for example, self-inflating resuscitator, flow-inflating resuscitator, AED; 10. Mechanical ventilators; 11. Intubation equipment; 12. Artificial airways; 13. Suctioning equipment, for example, regulator, canister, tubing, catheter; 14. Blood analyzers, for example, hemoximetry (CO-oximetry), point-of-care, blood gas; 15. Patient breathing circuits; 16. Hyperinflation devices; 17. Secretion clearance devices; 18. Heliox delivery device; 19. Portable spirometer; 20. Testing equipment in a pulmonary function laboratory; 21. Pleural drainage; 22. Noninvasive monitoring, for example, pulse oximeter, capnometer, transcutaneous; 23. Bronchoscopes and light sources; 24. Hemodynamic monitoring a. pressure transducers; b. catheters, for example, arterial, pulmonary artery
    • II.B. Ensure Infection Prevention — 1. Adhering to infection prevention policies and procedures, for example, Standard Precautions, donning/doffing, isolation; 2. Adhering to disinfection policies and procedures; 3. Proper handling of biohazardous materials
    • II.C. Perform Quality Control Procedures — 1. Blood analyzers; 2. Gas analyzers; 3. Pulmonary function equipment for testing a. spirometry results; b. lung volumes; c. diffusing capacity (DLCO); 4. Mechanical ventilators; 5. Noninvasive monitors
  • III. INITIATION AND MODIFICATION OF INTERVENTIONS
    • III.A. Maintain a Patent Airway Including the Care of Artificial Airways — 1. Proper positioning of a patient; 2. Recognition of a difficult airway; 3. Establishing and managing a patient's airway a. nasopharyngeal airway; b. oropharyngeal airway; c. esophagealtracheal tubes / supraglottic airways; d. endotracheal tube; e. tracheostomy tube; f. laryngectomy tube; g. speaking valves; h. devices that assist with intubation, for example, endotracheal tube exchanger, video laryngoscopy; 4. Performing tracheostomy care; 5. Exchanging artificial airways; 6. Maintaining adequate humidification; 7. Initiating protocols to prevent ventilator-associated infections; 8. Performing extubation
    • III.B. Perform Airway Clearance and Lung Expansion Techniques — 1. Postural drainage, percussion, or vibration; 2. Suctioning, for example, nasotracheal, oropharyngeal; 3. Mechanical devices, for example, high-frequency chest wall oscillation, vibratory PEP, intrapulmonary percussive ventilation, insufflation / exsufflation device; 4. Assisted cough, for example, huff, abdominal thrust; 5. Hyperinflation therapy; 6. Inspiratory muscle training
    • III.C. Support Oxygenation and Ventilation — 1. Initiating and adjusting oxygen therapy; 2. Minimizing hypoxemia, for example, patient positioning, secretion removal; 3. Initiating and adjusting mask or nasal CPAP; 4. Initiating and adjusting mechanical ventilation settings a. continuous mechanical ventilation; b. noninvasive ventilation; c. high-frequency ventilation; d. alarms; 5. Recognizing and correcting patient-ventilator dyssynchrony; 6. Utilizing ventilator graphics; 7. Performing lung recruitment maneuvers; 8. Liberating a patient from mechanical ventilation
    • III.D. Administer Medications and Specialty Gases — 1. Aerosolized preparations a. antimicrobials; b. pulmonary vasodilators; c. bronchodilators; d. mucolytics / proteolytics; e. steroids; 2. Endotracheal instillation; 3. Specialty gases, for example, heliox, inhaled NO
    • III.E. Ensure Modifications are Made to the Respiratory Care Plan — 1. Treatment termination, for example, life-threatening adverse event; 2. Recommendations a. starting treatment based on patient response; b. treatment of pneumothorax; c. adjustment of fluid balance; d. adjustment of electrolyte therapy; e. insertion or change of artificial airway; f. liberating from mechanical ventilation; g. extubation; h. discontinuing treatment based on patient response; i. consultation from a physician specialist; 3. Recommendations for changes a. patient position; b. oxygen therapy; c. humidification; d. airway clearance; e. hyperinflation; f. mechanical ventilation; 4. Recommendations for pharmacologic interventions a. bronchodilators; b. anti-inflammatory drugs; c. mucolytics and proteolytics; d. aerosolized antibiotics; e. inhaled pulmonary vasodilators; f. cardiovascular; g. antimicrobials; h. sedatives and hypnotics; i. analgesics; j. narcotic antagonists; k. benzodiazepine antagonists; l. neuromuscular blocking agents; m. diuretics; n. surfactants; o. changes to drug, dosage, administration frequency, mode, or concentration
    • III.F. Utilize Evidence-Based Practice — 1. Classification of disease severity; 2. Recommendations for changes in a therapeutic plan when indicated; 3. Application of guidelines, for example, ARDSNet, NAEPP, GOLD
    • III.G. Provide Respiratory Care Techniques in High-Risk Situations — 1. Emergency a. cardiopulmonary emergencies excluding CPR; b. disaster management; c. medical emergency team (MET) / rapid response team; 2. Interprofessional communication; 3. Patient transport a. land / air between hospitals; b. within a hospital
    • III.H. Assist a Physician / Provider in Performing Procedures — 1. Intubation; 2. Bronchoscopy; 3. Specialized bronchoscopy, for example, EBUS, navigational bronchoscopy (ENB); 4. Thoracentesis; 5. Tracheotomy; 6. Chest tube insertion; 7. Insertion of arterial or venous catheters; 8. Moderate (conscious) sedation; 9. Cardioversion; 10. Withdrawal of life support
    • III.I. Conduct Patient and Family Education — 1. Safety and infection control; 2. Home care and related equipment; 3. Lifestyle changes, for example, smoking cessation, exercise; 4. Pulmonary rehabilitation; 5. Disease / condition management, for example, asthma, COPD, CF, tracheostomy care, ventilator dependent
Examination sources

Therapist Multiple-Choice Examination

Provider
The National Board for Respiratory Care (NBRC); administered Monday through Saturday at more than 300 assessment centers through the NBRC testing agency PSI
Format
Computer-based multiple-choice examination; each scored item is linked to a content area and cognitive level (recall, application, analysis); the TMC ends December 31, 2026 and the Respiratory Therapy Examination is used from January 1, 2027
Exam questions
160 multiple-choice items: 140 scored and 20 pretest
Time limit
3 hours
Passing score
Raw score (each item worth one point) compared with two cut scores: the low cut score earns the CRT credential; the high cut score earns the CRT credential and eligibility for the Clinical Simulation Examination for candidates eligible to earn the RRT
Exam fee
$190 new applicants; $150 repeat applicants
Examination outline
  • I. PATIENT DATA (50 of 140 scored items; Recall 15, Application 27, Analysis 8) (35.71%)
    • I.A. Evaluate Data in the Patient Record (10 of 50 section items; Recall 4, Application 6, Analysis 0) — 1. Patient history, for example, history of present illness (HPI), orders, medication reconciliation, progress notes, DNR status / advance directives, social, family, and medical history; 2. Physical examination relative to the cardiopulmonary system; 3. Lines, drains, and airways, for example, chest tube, vascular lines, artificial airway; 4. Laboratory results, for example, CBC, electrolytes, coagulation studies, sputum culture and sensitivities, cardiac biomarkers; 5. Blood gas analysis and / or hemoximetry (CO-oximetry) results; 6. Pulmonary function testing results, for example spirometry, lung volumes, DLCO; 7. 6-minute walk test results; 8. Imaging study results, for example, chest radiograph, CT scan, ultrasonography and / or echocardiography, PET scan, ventilation / perfusion scan; 9. Maternal and perinatal / neonatal history, for example, APGAR scores, gestational age, L / S ratio; 10. Sleep study results, for example, apnea-hypopnea index (AHI); 11. Trends in monitoring results: a. fluid balance; b. vital signs; c. intracranial pressure; d. ventilator liberation parameters; e. pulmonary mechanics; f. noninvasive, for example, pulse oximetry, capnography, transcutaneous; g. cardiac evaluation / monitoring results, for example, ECG, hemodynamic parameters; 12. Determination of a patient's pathophysiological state
    • I.B. Perform Clinical Assessment (10 of 50 section items; Recall 3, Application 6, Analysis 1) — 1. Interviewing a patient to assess a. level of consciousness and orientation, emotional state, and ability to cooperate; b. level of pain; c. shortness of breath, sputum production, and exercise tolerance; d. smoking history; e. environmental exposures; f. activities of daily living; g. learning needs, for example, literacy, preferred learning style, social / cultural; 2. Performing inspection to assess a. general appearance; b. characteristics of the airway, for example, patency, Mallampati classification, tracheal shift; c. cough, sputum amount and character; d. status of a neonate, for example, APGAR score, gestational age; e. skin integrity, for example, pressure ulcers, stoma site; 3. Palpating to assess a. pulse, rhythm, intensity; b. accessory muscle activity; c. asymmetrical chest movements, tactile fremitus, crepitus, tenderness, tactile rhonchi, and / or tracheal deviation; 4. Performing diagnostic chest percussion; 5. Auscultating to assess a. breath sounds; b. heart sounds and rhythm; c. blood pressure; 6. Reviewing a chest radiograph to assess a. quality of imaging, for example, patient positioning, penetration, lung inflation; b. presence and position of airways, lines, and drains; c. presence of foreign bodies; d. heart size and position; e. presence of, or change in, (i) cardiopulmonary abnormalities, for example, pneumothorax, consolidation, pleural effusion, pulmonary edema, pulmonary artery size; (ii) diaphragm, mediastinum, and / or trachea
    • I.C. Perform Procedures to Gather Clinical Information (12 of 50 section items; Recall 4, Application 7, Analysis 1) — 1. 12-lead ECG; 2. Noninvasive monitoring, for example, pulse oximetry, capnography, transcutaneous; 3. Peak flow; 4. Mechanics of spontaneous ventilation linked to tidal volume, minute volume, maximal inspiratory pressure, and vital capacity; 5. Blood gas sample collection; 6. Blood gas analysis and / or hemoximetry (CO-oximetry); 7. Oxygen titration with exercise; 8. Cardiopulmonary calculations, for example, P(A-a)O2, VD / VT, P/F, OI; 9. Hemodynamic monitoring; 10. Pulmonary compliance and airways resistance; 11. Plateau pressure; 12. Auto-PEEP determination; 13. Spontaneous breathing trial (SBT); 14. Apnea monitoring; 15. Apnea test (brain death determination); 16. Overnight pulse oximetry; 17. CPAP / NPPV titration during sleep; 18. Cuff management, for example, tracheal, laryngeal; 19. Sputum induction; 20. Cardiopulmonary stress testing; 21. 6-minute walk test; 22. Spirometry outside or inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 23. DLCO inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 24. Lung volumes inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 25. Tests of respiratory muscle strength - MIP and MEP; 26. Therapeutic bronchoscopy
    • I.D. Evaluate Procedure Results (10 of 50 section items; Recall 2, Application 4, Analysis 4) — 1. 12-lead ECG; 2. Noninvasive monitoring, for example, pulse oximetry, capnography, transcutaneous; 3. Peak flow; 4. Mechanics of spontaneous ventilation linked to tidal volume, minute volume, maximal inspiratory pressure, and vital capacity; 5. Blood gas analysis and / or hemoximetry (CO-oximetry); 6. Oxygen titration with exercise; 7. Cardiopulmonary calculations, for example, P(A-a)O2, VD / VT, P/F, OI; 8. Hemodynamic monitoring; 9. Pulmonary compliance and airways resistance; 10. Plateau pressure; 11. Auto-PEEP; 12. Spontaneous breathing trial (SBT); 13. Apnea monitoring; 14. Apnea test (brain death determination); 15. Overnight pulse oximetry; 16. CPAP / NPPV titration during sleep; 17. Cuff status, for example, laryngeal, tracheal; 18. Cardiopulmonary stress testing; 19. 6-minute walk test; 20. Spirometry outside or inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 21. DLCO inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 22. Lung volumes inside a pulmonary function laboratory; 23. Tests of respiratory muscle strength - MIP and MEP
    • I.E. Recommend Diagnostic Procedures (8 of 50 section items; Recall 2, Application 4, Analysis 2) — 1. Testing for tuberculosis; 2. Laboratory tests, for example, CBC, electrolytes, coagulation studies, sputum culture and sensitivities, cardiac biomarkers; 3. Imaging studies; 4. Bronchoscopy a. diagnostic; b. therapeutic; 5. Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL); 6. Pulmonary function testing; 7. Noninvasive monitoring, for example, pulse oximetry, capnography, transcutaneous; 8. Blood gas and/or hemoximetry (CO-oximetry); 9. ECG; 10. Exhaled gas analysis, for example, CO2, CO, FENO; 11. Hemodynamic monitoring; 12. Sleep studies; 13. Thoracentesis
  • II. TROUBLESHOOTING AND QUALITY CONTROL OF DEVICES, AND INFECTION CONTROL (20 of 140 scored items; Recall 8, Application 9, Analysis 3) (14.29%)
    • II.A. Assemble / Troubleshoot Devices (15 of 20 section items; Recall 4, Application 8, Analysis 3) — 1. Medical gas delivery interfaces, for example, mask, cannula, heated high-flow nasal cannula; 2. Long-term oxygen therapy; 3. Medical gas delivery, metering, and /or clinical analyzing devices, for example, concentrator, liquid system, flowmeter, regulator, gas cylinder, blender, air compressor, gas analyzers; 4. CPAP / NPPV with patient interfaces; 5. Humidifiers; 6. Nebulizers; 7. Metered-dose inhalers, spacers, and valved holding chambers; 8. Dry-powder inhalers (DPI); 9. Resuscitation equipment, for example, self-inflating resuscitator, flow-inflating resuscitator, AED; 10. Mechanical ventilators; 11. Intubation equipment; 12. Artificial airways; 13. Suctioning equipment, for example, regulator, canister, tubing, catheter; 14. Blood analyzers, for example, hemoximetry (CO-oximetry), point-of-care, blood gas; 15. Patient breathing circuits; 16. Hyperinflation devices; 17. Secretion clearance devices; 18. Heliox delivery device; 19. Portable spirometer; 20. Testing equipment in a pulmonary function laboratory; 21. Pleural drainage; 22. Noninvasive monitoring, for example, pulse oximeter, capnometer, transcutaneous; 23. Bronchoscopes and light sources; 24. Hemodynamic monitoring a. pressure transducers; b. catheters, for example, arterial, pulmonary artery
    • II.B. Ensure Infection Prevention (2 of 20 section items; Recall 2, Application 0, Analysis 0) — 1. Adhering to infection prevention policies and procedures, for example, Standard Precautions, donning/doffing, isolation; 2. Adhering to disinfection policies and procedures; 3. Proper handling of biohazardous materials
    • II.C. Perform Quality Control Procedures (3 of 20 section items; Recall 2, Application 1, Analysis 0) — 1. Blood analyzers; 2. Gas analyzers; 3. Pulmonary function equipment for testing a. spirometry results; b. lung volumes; c. diffusing capacity (DLCO); 4. Mechanical ventilators; 5. Noninvasive monitors
  • III. INITIATION AND MODIFICATION OF INTERVENTIONS (70 of 140 scored items; Recall 10, Application 30, Analysis 30) (50%)
    • III.A. Maintain a Patent Airway Including the Care of Artificial Airways (10 of 70 section items; Recall 3, Application 4, Analysis 3) — 1. Proper positioning of a patient; 2. Recognition of a difficult airway; 3. Establishing and managing a patient's airway a. nasopharyngeal airway; b. oropharyngeal airway; c. esophagealtracheal tubes / supraglottic airways; d. endotracheal tube; e. tracheostomy tube; f. laryngectomy tube; g. speaking valves; h. devices that assist with intubation, for example, endotracheal tube exchanger, video laryngoscopy; 4. Performing tracheostomy care; 5. Exchanging artificial airways; 6. Maintaining adequate humidification; 7. Initiating protocols to prevent ventilator-associated infections; 8. Performing extubation
    • III.B. Perform Airway Clearance and Lung Expansion Techniques (5 of 70 section items; Recall 2, Application 2, Analysis 1) — 1. Postural drainage, percussion, or vibration; 2. Suctioning, for example, nasotracheal, oropharyngeal; 3. Mechanical devices, for example, high-frequency chest wall oscillation, vibratory PEP, intrapulmonary percussive ventilation, insufflation / exsufflation; 4. Assisted cough, for example, huff, abdominal thrust; 5. Hyperinflation therapy; 6. Inspiratory muscle training
    • III.C. Support Oxygenation and Ventilation (15 of 70 section items; Recall 1, Application 5, Analysis 9) — 1. Initiating and adjusting oxygen therapy; 2. Minimizing hypoxemia, for example, patient positioning, secretion removal; 3. Initiating and adjusting mask or nasal CPAP; 4. Initiating and adjusting mechanical ventilation settings a. continuous mechanical ventilation; b. noninvasive ventilation; c. high-frequency ventilation; d. alarms; 5. Recognizing and correcting patient-ventilator dyssynchrony; 6. Utilizing ventilator graphics; 7. Performing lung recruitment maneuvers; 8. Liberating a patient from mechanical ventilation
    • III.D. Administer Medications and Specialty Gases (4 of 70 section items; Recall 1, Application 3, Analysis 0) — 1. Aerosolized preparations a. antimicrobials; b. pulmonary vasodilators; c. bronchodilators; d. mucolytics / proteolytics; e. steroids; 2. Endotracheal instillation; 3. Specialty gases, for example, heliox, inhaled NO
    • III.E. Ensure Modifications are Made to the Respiratory Care Plan (18 of 70 section items; Recall 1, Application 7, Analysis 10) — 1. Treatment termination, for example, life-threatening adverse event; 2. Recommendations a. starting treatment based on patient response; b. treatment of pneumothorax; c. adjustment of fluid balance; d. adjustment of electrolyte therapy; e. insertion or change of artificial airway; f. liberating from mechanical ventilation; g. extubation; h. discontinuing treatment based on patient response; i. consultation from a physician specialist; 3. Recommendations for changes a. patient position; b. oxygen therapy; c. humidification; d. airway clearance; e. hyperinflation; f. mechanical ventilation; 4. Recommendations for pharmacologic interventions a. bronchodilators; b. anti-inflammatory drugs; c. mucolytics and proteolytics; d. aerosolized antibiotics; e. inhaled pulmonary vasodilators; f. cardiovascular; g. antimicrobials; h. sedatives and hypnotics; i. analgesics; j. narcotic antagonists; k. benzodiazepine antagonists; l. neuromuscular blocking agents; m. diuretics; n. surfactants; o. changes to drug, dosage, administration frequency, mode, or concentration
    • III.F. Utilize Evidence-Based Practice (6 of 70 section items; Recall 0, Application 2, Analysis 4) — 1. Classification of disease severity; 2. Recommendations for changes in a therapeutic plan when indicated; 3. Application of guidelines, for example, ARDSNet, NAEPP, GOLD
    • III.G. Provide Respiratory Care in High-Risk Situations (5 of 70 section items; Recall 0, Application 2, Analysis 3) — 1. Emergency a. cardiopulmonary emergencies, excluding CPR; b. disaster management; c. medical emergency team (MET) / rapid response team; 2. Interprofessional communication; 3. Patient transport a. land / air between hospitals; b. within a hospital
    • III.H. Assist a Physician / Provider in Performing Procedures (4 of 70 section items; Recall 1, Application 3, Analysis 0) — 1. Intubation; 2. Bronchoscopy; 3. Specialized bronchoscopy, for example, endobronchial ultrasound (EBUS), navigational bronchoscopy (ENB); 4. Thoracentesis; 5. Tracheotomy; 6. Chest tube insertion; 7. Insertion of arterial or venous catheters; 8. Moderate (conscious) sedation; 9. Cardioversion; 10. Withdrawal of life support
    • III.I. Conduct Patient and Family Education (3 of 70 section items; Recall 1, Application 2, Analysis 0) — 1. Safety and infection control; 2. Home care and related equipment; 3. Lifestyle changes, for example, smoking cessation, exercise; 4. Pulmonary rehabilitation; 5. Disease / condition management, for example, asthma, COPD, CF, tracheostomy care, ventilator dependent
Examination sources